microbiology an introduction test bank

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: presence of metachromatic granules. This is because Corynebacterium diphtheriae is known for containing metachromatic granules, which are characteristic of this species. These granules can be observed under a microscope and aid in the identification of the bacteria. Explanation of other choices: A: formation of spores - Corynebacterium diphtheriae does not form spores. Spore formation is more commonly seen in bacteria such as Bacillus and Clostridium species. C: production of coagulase - Coagulase production is a characteristic of Staphylococcus aureus, not Corynebacterium diphtheriae. D: beta-hemolysis on blood agar - Corynebacterium diphtheriae does not exhibit beta-hemolysis on blood agar. This type of hemolysis is more typical of Streptococcus pyogenes.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anatoxin. An anatoxin is a preparation that contains inactivated toxins produced by the anthrax-causing bacteria. By administering anatoxin, the population can develop immunity against the toxin without being exposed to the live bacteria. This specific prophylaxis approach helps prevent the development of anthrax infection by targeting the toxin itself. Summary: - Choice B (Inactivated vaccine) is incorrect because an inactivated vaccine typically contains killed or inactivated whole bacteria, not just the toxins. - Choice C (Chemical vaccine) is incorrect as there is no such thing as a chemical vaccine; vaccines are biological preparations. - Choice D (Genetically engineered vaccine) is incorrect because while vaccines can be genetically engineered, the specific term "genetically engineered vaccine" does not accurately describe the prophylaxis used against anthrax in this scenario.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Certainly! The correct answer is D because all three options (A, B, and C) can be analyzed in the diagnosis of sexually transmitted infections. Genital ulcer secretions can reveal the presence of pathogens causing STIs, lymph node punctate can indicate systemic infection, and serum can be tested for specific STI antibodies. Therefore, all these clinical specimens are essential for a comprehensive diagnosis of sexually transmitted infections. The other choices (A, B, C) are incorrect as they individually represent important specimens used in the diagnosis process.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gram-negative bacteria. Gram-negative bacteria have an outer membrane containing lipopolysaccharides (LPS). In the Gram staining technique, these bacteria appear pink/red due to the thin peptidoglycan layer, which allows the crystal violet stain to be washed out, revealing the safranin counterstain. Gram-positive bacteria (choice A) have a thick peptidoglycan layer but lack an outer membrane with LPS. Choice C is incorrect since only Gram-negative bacteria possess LPS in their outer membrane. Choice D is incorrect as all bacteria can be classified as either Gram-positive or Gram-negative based on their cell wall structure.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Streptococcus pyogenes is the causative agent of strep throat. 2. If untreated, strep throat can lead to rheumatic fever. 3. Rheumatic fever is an autoimmune complication of streptococcal infections. 4. E. coli, S. epidermidis, and S. aureus are not typically associated with rheumatic fever.