Midwifery Exam Practice Questions

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Magnesium sulphate. It is the drug of choice for managing eclampsia due to its ability to prevent and control seizures. Magnesium sulfate acts as a central nervous system depressant and smooth muscle relaxant, helping to prevent further seizures. Phenobarbitone (A) is not the first-line treatment for eclampsia. Calcium gluconate (C) is used to counteract calcium channel blocker toxicity, not for eclampsia. Sodium bicarbonate (D) is used to treat metabolic acidosis, not eclampsia.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. In myelodysplastic syndromes, splenectomy is indicated for sustained leukocyte elevation above 30,000 cells/�L to manage symptomatic splenomegaly and cytopenias. This is because an enlarged spleen can sequester and destroy blood cells, leading to low blood cell counts. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as splenectomy is not typically indicated for major hemolysis unresponsive to medical management, severe symptoms of massive splenomegaly, or portal hypertension in the context of myelodysplastic syndromes.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice C: 1. Progressive cervical dilatation indicates effective labor progress. 2. Stopping the syntocinon drops prematurely allows natural labor progression. 3. Prematurely stopping drops before reaching full dilation may hinder labor. 4. Achieving cervical dilatation is a crucial indicator for successful labor. Summary: A: Contractions should be strong, not just moderate. B: Maternal observations alone do not determine labor progress. D: Fetal-related observations are important but not the primary indicator for stopping drops.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In face presentation, the face is an ill-fitting presenting part, leading to obstructed labor. The face has larger diameters, making it difficult to pass through the birth canal. This differs from vertex delivery where the head can mold to fit. Caput succedaneum is swelling of the soft tissues on the baby's head and does not directly cause obstructed labor.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: Puerperal pyrexia refers to fever occurring after childbirth. Step 2: Causes can be obstetric (infection) or non-obstetric (e.g., urinary tract infection). Step 3: Non-obstetric causes are also common postpartum. Step 4: Therefore, puerperal pyrexia is not entirely obstetrically related. Step 5: Hence, the correct answer is B (FALSE).