ATI RN
microbiology an introduction 13th edition test bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
The decrease in blood clotting by heparin occurs at which general site of action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Extracellular. Heparin works by inhibiting clotting factors in the blood outside of cells, preventing the formation of blood clots. It does not directly affect cellular, neuromuscular, or intracellular processes. By targeting extracellular factors, heparin effectively reduces the ability of blood to clot, making it an effective anticoagulant. The other choices are incorrect because heparin does not act on cellular, neuromuscular, or intracellular sites in the body to decrease blood clotting.
Question 2 of 5
Numerous antibodies can be prepared against one antigen, but each binds to unique epitope. How is this antibodies diversity generated?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because antibody diversity is generated by rearrangements of DNA encoding variable regions of heavy and light chains (choice A) and by the combination of different heavy and light chains that form the antigen binding site (choice B). Step 1: DNA rearrangements create different variable regions in heavy and light chains. Step 2: Combination of different heavy and light chains leads to unique antigen binding sites. Step 3: This diversity allows antibodies to bind to different epitopes on the same antigen. Step 4: Choice C is incorrect as antibodies do not physically change shape to bind different epitopes.
Question 3 of 5
Which bacteria is responsible for causing syphilis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Treponema pallidum is a spirochete bacterium known to cause syphilis, a sexually transmitted infection. Step 2: Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes gonorrhea, not syphilis. Step 3: Chlamydia trachomatis is responsible for causing chlamydia, not syphilis. Step 4: Escherichia coli is commonly found in the gut and can cause gastrointestinal infections, not syphilis. Summary: Treponema pallidum is the correct answer as it is the specific bacterium associated with syphilis, while the other choices are responsible for different infections.
Question 4 of 5
A Gram-negative, comma-shaped bacterium was isolated from a patient with cholera. What is the most likely microorganism?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vibrio cholerae. 1. Vibrio cholerae is a Gram-negative, comma-shaped bacterium known to cause cholera. 2. Shigella dysenteriae causes dysentery, not cholera. 3. Salmonella typhi causes typhoid fever, not cholera. 4. Campylobacter jejuni causes gastroenteritis, not cholera. Therefore, based on the symptoms presented and the characteristics of the bacterium, Vibrio cholerae is the most likely microorganism.
Question 5 of 5
A chronic localized subcutaneous infection characterized by verrucoid lesions on the skin is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, chromoblastomycosis. This is a chronic localized subcutaneous infection caused by certain fungi, resulting in verrucoid lesions on the skin. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Candidiasis is a superficial fungal infection, not characterized by verrucoid lesions. B: Leprosy is a systemic bacterial infection, not localized to the skin with verrucoid lesions. C: Shingles is caused by the varicella-zoster virus, presenting as a painful rash with blisters, not verrucoid lesions.
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