Midwifery Exam Questions

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Wernicke's encephalopathy. Hyperemesis gravidarum is severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. Wernicke's encephalopathy is a neurological complication due to thiamine deficiency, which can occur in severe cases of vomiting, leading to impaired brain function. Sheehan's syndrome is a complication of postpartum pituitary necrosis. Maurice encephalitis is a fictional term not related to this context. Antepartum bleeding is not a typical complication of hyperemesis gravidarum. Therefore, the correct answer is A due to the potential neurological impact of severe vomiting on thiamine levels.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Gram negative infection. In sepsis, especially with a Gram negative infection, organ donation may pose a risk of transmitting the infection to the recipient. This can be life-threatening for the organ recipient. Renal failure (choice A), traumatic brain injury (choice B), and breast cancer (choice D) are not direct contraindications to organ donation. Renal failure may limit the suitability of certain organs, but it does not automatically disqualify a patient from donating other organs. Traumatic brain injury may impact brain donation but does not rule out other organ donation. Breast cancer may affect eligibility for certain organs but does not universally disqualify a patient from organ donation.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice D (Atelectasis) is correct: 1. Ascorbic acid deficiency can lead to impaired lung function, increasing the risk of atelectasis. 2. Anemia can cause decreased oxygen-carrying capacity, contributing to atelectasis. 3. Volume contraction can lead to reduced lung expansion, further predisposing to atelectasis. Summary: - Choice A (Prolonged intubation): Intubation duration is more related to respiratory complications, not directly linked to the mentioned risk factors. - Choice B (Thromboembolism): Risk factors like immobility and hypercoagulability are more relevant to thromboembolism. - Choice C (Delayed wound healing): More associated with factors like malnutrition and impaired immune function rather than the mentioned risk factors.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because pressure applied on the cervix by the presenting part in obstructed labor leads to edema of the vulva. This pressure causes obstruction of blood and lymphatic flow in the area, resulting in swelling and edema. Prolonged effort by the mother (choice A) would not directly cause vulvar edema. An ill-fitting presenting part (choice C) may contribute to obstruction but does not explain the mechanism of edema. Large presenting diameters (choice D) stretching the vulva would not directly cause edema without pressure on the cervix.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoidance of elective surgery and nonessential medications. This is the initial management for a patient with thrombocytopenia and abnormal bleeding time, possibly indicating immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). Avoiding surgery and medications that can worsen thrombocytopenia is crucial to prevent bleeding complications. Prednisone (B) is not the first-line treatment for ITP, especially without confirming the diagnosis. Monoclonal antibody therapy (C) such as rituximab is usually reserved for refractory cases. Splenectomy (D) is considered only if other treatments fail as a last resort.