Cardiovascular System Exam Questions Pdf

Questions 54

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Cardiovascular System Exam Questions Pdf Questions

Question 1 of 5

The client on warfarin has an INR of 4.5. What is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 4.5 is elevated, indicating an increased risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. The most appropriate action for the nurse in this scenario is to administer vitamin K. Vitamin K helps reverse the anticoagulant effects of warfarin, thus lowering the INR and reducing the risk of bleeding. Holding the next dose of warfarin (choice B) is not sufficient to address the immediate high INR level. Increasing the dose of warfarin (choice C) would further elevate the INR, worsening the risk of bleeding. While monitoring the client's INR closely (choice D) is important, immediate action is required to address the critically high INR level, making the administration of vitamin K the priority intervention.

Question 2 of 5

The healthcare provider is monitoring a client on an ACE inhibitor. What lab value is most important to monitor?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Potassium. When a client is on an ACE inhibitor, it is crucial to monitor potassium levels because ACE inhibitors can lead to an increase in potassium, potentially causing hyperkalemia. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice B) is not as critical in this scenario. Creatinine levels (Choice C) are important for assessing kidney function but are not the most crucial lab value to monitor with ACE inhibitors. Calcium levels (Choice D) are not directly affected by ACE inhibitors and are not the priority for monitoring in this case.

Question 3 of 5

What is a condition where the airways become swollen and produce extra mucus, making it difficult to breathe, often associated with COPD?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Chronic bronchitis is the correct answer. It is a long-term inflammation of the bronchi, leading to persistent cough and mucus production, commonly associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Pneumonia (Choice B) is an infection that inflames the air sacs in one or both lungs. Emphysema (Choice C) is a lung condition where the air sacs in the lungs are damaged, making it difficult to breathe. Tuberculosis (Choice D) is a bacterial infection that primarily affects the lungs.

Question 4 of 5

What is a condition where the blood supply to the brain is interrupted or reduced, preventing brain tissue from getting oxygen and nutrients?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: A stroke is the correct answer. A stroke occurs when the blood supply to part of the brain is interrupted or reduced, leading to a lack of oxygen and nutrients to the brain tissue, causing brain damage. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because a transient ischemic attack (TIA) is a temporary blockage of blood flow to the brain with no lasting damage, myocardial infarction is a heart attack due to blockage of blood flow to the heart muscle, and angina is chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart.

Question 5 of 5

This is a more accurate indicator of tissue perfusion. It represents the cardiac output in terms of liters per minute per square meter of body surface area. Its normal range is 2.4-4 L/min.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cardiac Index. Cardiac Index is a measure of cardiac output relative to body surface area, providing a more accurate assessment of tissue perfusion. It is calculated by dividing the cardiac output by the body surface area. The normal range for cardiac index is 2.4-4 L/min/m�. Choice B, Stroke volume, refers to the amount of blood ejected by the heart in one contraction and is not adjusted for body surface area. Choice C, Ejection fraction, is the percentage of blood pumped out of the heart's ventricles with each contraction, not adjusted for body surface area. Choice D, Cardiac output, is the total volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute, without considering body surface area.

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