Midwifery Test Questions

Questions 64

ATI RN

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Midwifery Test Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material T. O. is a 44-year-old female patient who presents for evaluation of sudden, severe upper abdominal pain. She is clear about the onset, which was profound and occurred approximately one hour ago. She denies that the onset had any relationship to food or eating, and she denies nausea or vomiting. On examination, she is lying on her right side with her hips and knees flexed to draw her knees to her chest. Vital signs are stable, but examination reveals involuntary guarding. The abdomen is painful and tympanic to percussion in all quadrants. CBC reveals a white blood cell count of 15,600L. The AGACNP suspects

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute pancreatitis. The patient's sudden, severe upper abdominal pain, unaffected by food intake, along with guarding and elevated white blood cell count, are indicative of acute pancreatitis. The patient's positioning (knees to chest) suggests relief from pain, which is characteristic of pancreatitis. A dissecting aortic aneurysm (choice A) typically presents with tearing chest or back pain. Perforated peptic ulcer (choice C) would present with a history of chronic ulcer symptoms. Mallory-Weiss tear (choice D) presents with a history of recent vomiting. Therefore, based on the patient's presentation and findings, acute pancreatitis is the most likely diagnosis.

Question 2 of 5

Predisposing factors to uterine rupture include

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because neglected obstructed labor and high parity are well-established predisposing factors to uterine rupture. Neglected obstructed labor can cause prolonged pressure on the uterus, leading to weakening and potential rupture. High parity (having given birth multiple times) can also increase the risk of uterine rupture due to repeated stretching and strain on the uterine muscles. A, B, and D are incorrect because nulliparity (never given birth), breech presentation, multiple pregnancy, and obstetric maneuvers are not as strongly associated with uterine rupture as neglected obstructed labor and high parity. These factors may increase the risk of other complications during childbirth but are not primary predisposing factors for uterine rupture.

Question 3 of 5

Mrs. Jenner is a 41-year-old female who is being evaluated for persistent nausea. She had an abdominal CT scan that reported three hepatic hemangiomas ranging from 3 to 5 cm. The AGACNP knows that the appropriate response to this report is to

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Ordering hepatic ultrasound annually to follow progression is the appropriate response for hepatic hemangiomas. Biopsy is not recommended due to the risk of bleeding. Surgery is usually not required unless there are complications. Documenting the finding is important but does not address the need for monitoring. Ultrasound allows for non-invasive monitoring of the hemangiomas over time to assess for growth or complications, guiding further management if needed.

Question 4 of 5

How can maternal obesity be managed during pregnancy to improve outcomes?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, All of the above. Regular exercise helps control weight gain and improves maternal health. A balanced diet provides essential nutrients for both mother and baby. Monitoring weight gain ensures healthy weight management. Combining all three strategies optimizes outcomes by reducing risks associated with maternal obesity, such as gestational diabetes and hypertension. Each option plays a crucial role in managing maternal obesity during pregnancy for better overall health and well-being.

Question 5 of 5

Cholesteatoma is a condition characterized by a collection of desquamated keratin leading to bony erosion in the ossicular chain and inner ear. The goal of surgery in cholesteatoma is

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Preservation of sensorineural hearing. In cholesteatoma, surgery aims to remove the lesion and prevent further damage to the ossicles and inner ear structures. Preserving sensorineural hearing is crucial to maintain auditory function post-surgery. A: Production of a dry ear is important to prevent recurrence, but not the primary goal. C: Debridement of infection is necessary, but the main aim is to address the cholesteatoma itself. D: Restoration of the tympanic membrane may be needed but is not the primary objective in cholesteatoma surgery.

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