Midwifery Test Questions

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because neglected obstructed labor and high parity are well-established predisposing factors to uterine rupture. Neglected obstructed labor can cause prolonged pressure on the uterus, leading to weakening and potential rupture. High parity (having given birth multiple times) can also increase the risk of uterine rupture due to repeated stretching and strain on the uterine muscles. A, B, and D are incorrect because nulliparity (never given birth), breech presentation, multiple pregnancy, and obstetric maneuvers are not as strongly associated with uterine rupture as neglected obstructed labor and high parity. These factors may increase the risk of other complications during childbirth but are not primary predisposing factors for uterine rupture.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: CBC with WBC differential. This test can help rule out infectious causes of left lower quadrant pain, such as diverticulitis or colitis, by assessing for elevated white blood cell count and left shift. A CT scan (A) with contrast may be indicated if the patient's condition worsens or if initial tests are inconclusive. Colonoscopy (C) is more appropriate for evaluating chronic or intermittent abdominal pain, not acute symptoms. Barium enema (D) is an outdated test and not commonly used for diagnosing acute abdominal pain.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute pancreatitis. The patient's sudden, severe upper abdominal pain, unaffected by food intake, along with guarding and elevated white blood cell count, are indicative of acute pancreatitis. The patient's positioning (knees to chest) suggests relief from pain, which is characteristic of pancreatitis. A dissecting aortic aneurysm (choice A) typically presents with tearing chest or back pain. Perforated peptic ulcer (choice C) would present with a history of chronic ulcer symptoms. Mallory-Weiss tear (choice D) presents with a history of recent vomiting. Therefore, based on the patient's presentation and findings, acute pancreatitis is the most likely diagnosis.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D (42 completed weeks) because a full-term pregnancy is considered to be around 40 weeks. Post maturity refers to a pregnancy that has exceeded the normal 40-week gestation period. At 42 weeks, the risk of complications such as stillbirth or issues with the placenta increases. Choice A (40 completed weeks) is incorrect because this is considered a full-term pregnancy. Choices B (38 completed weeks) and C (41 completed weeks) are incorrect as they do not meet the criteria for post maturity.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Truncus arteriosus. In this condition, there is a single large vessel arising from the heart that gives rise to the systemic, pulmonary, and coronary arteries. This results in mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood, leading to severe cyanosis and inadequate oxygenation of the body, causing immediate death after birth. A: Pulmonary stenosis and B: Aortic coarctation typically do not cause immediate death after birth. D: Ductus arteriosus is a normal fetal structure that closes shortly after birth and its presence would not directly cause immediate death.