Midwifery Exam Questions

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Postdatism refers to a pregnancy that extends beyond the normal gestation period of 280 days. The correct answer is B (294 days) as it is more than the standard 280-day term. Choice A (280 days) is the normal term, not postdatism. Choices C (290 days) and D (287 days) are also below the 294-day mark, making them incorrect for defining postdatism.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because in deep transverse arrest, the sagittal suture of the fetal head is typically aligned with the oblique diameter of the pelvis, causing an obstruction in the descent of the baby. This alignment leads to a difficult labor scenario where the baby's head cannot pass through the pelvis due to the mismatch in diameters. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the specific anatomical alignment that characterizes deep transverse arrest. Choice A refers to occipito-frontal diameter, choice B refers to sub-occipito-bregmatic diameter, and choice C mentions a face to pubis delivery, which are not the defining features of deep transverse arrest.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome involves underdevelopment of the left ventricle, aortic valve, and aortic arch. 2. The left ventricle is essential for pumping oxygenated blood to the body. 3. Aortic valve controls blood flow from the left ventricle to the aorta. 4. Aortic arch connects the ascending and descending aorta. Summary: A - Incorrect, as it includes pulmonary veins not related to hypoplastic left heart syndrome. B - Incorrect, as it includes structures not primarily affected in this condition. C - Incorrect, as it does not involve structures related to the left side of the heart.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale for choice C: 1. Excessive molding or abnormal stretching of the fetal head can indicate neonatal intracranial injury due to the trauma during birth. 2. This feature suggests possible compression or trauma to the baby's head during delivery. 3. It may lead to intracranial hemorrhage or other injuries, requiring close monitoring and medical intervention. Summary of other choices: A. An oedematous swelling resolving in 48 hours is likely a normal finding (cephalohematoma) and not specific to intracranial injury. B. Notable bleeding between the epicranial aponeurosis & periosteum may indicate cephalohematoma or caput succedaneum, not necessarily intracranial injury. D. Peripheral cyanosis is related to oxygenation and circulation, not specific to intracranial injury.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: CT scan without contrast. A CT scan is the most useful imaging study in assessing for findings consistent with a history of abuse in this patient. CT scan is preferred for acute trauma to the head as it provides detailed images of the brain, skull, and facial bones. It can detect acute hemorrhages, fractures, or other signs of trauma. In this case, the patient's presentation with periorbital ecchymosis and facial swelling raises suspicion for traumatic injury, which can be assessed effectively with a CT scan. Radiographs (choice A) are not as sensitive as CT scans in detecting subtle fractures or soft tissue injuries in the head and face. MRI (choice C) is not typically used in acute trauma assessment and may not provide timely information needed in this case. PET scan (choice D) is not indicated for evaluating traumatic head injuries and is more commonly used for assessing metabolic and functional activity in the body.