Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: maintain blood pressure control. After PTCA, the priority goal is to ensure stable hemodynamics. Maintaining blood pressure control is crucial to prevent complications such as bleeding or thrombosis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because preventing fluid volume deficit, decreasing myocardial contractility, and minimizing dyspnea are not immediate priorities post-PTCA. Oxygenation and hemodynamic stability take precedence over these concerns.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the right side weakness indicates a lesion in the left hemisphere of the brain. The brain's motor functions are contralaterally controlled, meaning the left hemisphere controls the right side of the body. Therefore, a right-sided weakness suggests a lesion in the left hemisphere. The other choices are incorrect because expressive aphasia is associated with left hemisphere lesions, judgment of distance and proprioception are more related to parietal lobe lesions, and orientation to time and space is not directly linked to right-sided weakness.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice A is correct: 1. Enalapril maleate is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. 2. ACE inhibitors like enalapril maleate block the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. 3. By inhibiting the formation of angiotensin II, enalapril maleate decreases the levels of angiotensin II. 4. Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor, so decreasing its levels leads to vasodilation and decreased blood pressure. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: - Choice B: Enalapril maleate primarily dilates arterioles by decreasing angiotensin II levels, not veins. - Choice C: Enalapril maleate does not directly adjust extracellular volume; it primarily affects the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. - Choice D: Enalapril maleate

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemorrhage. The nurse manager would intervene because hemorrhage is a life-threatening condition requiring immediate attention. Wandering (A), urinary retention (C), and impaired swallowing (D) are important assessments but do not pose the same level of immediate risk as hemorrhage. The nurse manager would prioritize addressing the hemorrhage to ensure the patient's safety and well-being.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because educating the client about the disease process and its limitations is crucial in managing Chronic Fatigue Syndrome (CFS). By understanding the disease, the client can make informed decisions regarding their lifestyle, activities, and self-care. This empowers the client to manage symptoms effectively and prevent exacerbations. Choice A is not the most important factor as simply avoiding aggravating the disease does not address the overall management of CFS. Choice B focuses solely on drug therapy, which is only one aspect of the client's management and may not provide significant improvement for all clients with CFS. Choice C, altering diet and environment, can be helpful but may not be the most important factor as understanding the disease process and limitations is essential for long-term management and quality of life.