ATI RN
Midwifery Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Mr. Mettenberger is being discharged following his hospitalization for reexpansion of his second spontaneous pneumothorax this year. He has stopped smoking and does not appear to have any overt risk factors. While doing his discharge teaching, the AGACNP advises Mr. Mettenberger that his current risk for another pneumothorax is
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D (>90%). Mr. Mettenberger had a reexpansion of his second spontaneous pneumothorax this year, indicating a high recurrence risk. Spontaneous pneumothorax recurrence rates are high, especially in young males. Factors such as smoking history, gender, and prior occurrences contribute to increased risk. Mr. Mettenberger's cessation of smoking reduces but does not eliminate the risk. Choices A, B, and C are too low, given his history and current situation. Choice D is the most appropriate due to the high likelihood of recurrence based on his medical history and risk factors.
Question 2 of 5
When a hand or foot lies alongside the presenting part, the presentation is said to be
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Compound. In compound presentation, a hand or foot is alongside the presenting part, usually the head. This can complicate the delivery process. A: Footling presentation means the foot presents first. B: Transverse presentation is when the baby is lying sideways. C: Cephalic presentation is normal, with the head presenting first. In this scenario, D is the correct answer as it specifically describes the situation where a hand or foot is alongside the presenting part.
Question 3 of 5
Mr. Costigan is a 50-year-old male patient who recently had a screening colonoscopy because it was recommended by his primary care provider as a screening measure. He received a report that noted inflammatory polyps. He is concerned because one of his friends had polyps that turned into cancer. While advising Mr. Costigan, the AGACNP tells him that
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because inflammatory polyps are indeed considered precancerous, meaning they have the potential to develop into cancer over time. By having regular colonoscopies every 3 to 5 years, any new polyps can be detected early and removed before they have a chance to become malignant. This approach helps in preventing the progression of polyps to cancerous lesions, thus reducing the risk of developing colon cancer. Choice B is incorrect because while family history is a risk factor for colon cancer, the presence of inflammatory polyps in Mr. Costigan should not be overlooked or solely attributed to family history. Choice C is incorrect because all polyps have the potential to become cancerous, including inflammatory polyps. Ignoring their presence can lead to missed opportunities for early intervention. Choice D is incorrect because at this stage, the primary focus should be on surveillance and prevention through regular colonoscopies, rather than jumping into discussions about aggressive treatment options.
Question 4 of 5
Prenatally, malaria parasites hide at the
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Placental bed. Malaria parasites hide in the placental bed during pregnancy to avoid detection by the immune system. This location provides a safe haven for the parasites to survive and replicate without being cleared by the mother's immune response. The placental bed offers a rich blood supply and a favorable environment for the parasites to thrive. Incorrect choices: A: Bone marrow - Malaria parasites do not typically hide in the bone marrow during pregnancy. C: Fetal circulation - Malaria parasites do not hide in the fetal circulation; they primarily reside in the placental bed. D: Uterine muscle - Malaria parasites do not hide in the uterine muscle; the placental bed is the main site of sequestration during pregnancy.
Question 5 of 5
Cholesteatoma is a condition characterized by a collection of desquamated keratin leading to bony erosion in the ossicular chain and inner ear. The goal of surgery in cholesteatoma is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Preservation of sensorineural hearing. In cholesteatoma, surgery aims to remove the lesion and prevent further damage to the ossicles and inner ear structures. Preserving sensorineural hearing is crucial to maintain auditory function post-surgery. A: Production of a dry ear is important to prevent recurrence, but not the primary goal. C: Debridement of infection is necessary, but the main aim is to address the cholesteatoma itself. D: Restoration of the tympanic membrane may be needed but is not the primary objective in cholesteatoma surgery.
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