Midwifery Test Questions

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D (>90%). Mr. Mettenberger had a reexpansion of his second spontaneous pneumothorax this year, indicating a high recurrence risk. Spontaneous pneumothorax recurrence rates are high, especially in young males. Factors such as smoking history, gender, and prior occurrences contribute to increased risk. Mr. Mettenberger's cessation of smoking reduces but does not eliminate the risk. Choices A, B, and C are too low, given his history and current situation. Choice D is the most appropriate due to the high likelihood of recurrence based on his medical history and risk factors.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because secondary post-partum hemorrhage can occur up to 6 weeks (46 days) after delivery, typically due to delayed complications like retained placental fragments or infection. Choice A is incorrect because most secondary post-partum hemorrhage occurs after the first week. Choice B is incorrect as it describes primary post-partum hemorrhage, which occurs within 24 hours of delivery. Choice D is incorrect since lochia serosa is a normal discharge present in the early post-partum period and is not specific to diagnosing secondary post-partum hemorrhage.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because congenital abnormalities and chorioangioma can lead to increased amniotic fluid accumulation, causing polyhydramnios. Congenital abnormalities can affect fetal swallowing and urine production, leading to fluid buildup. Chorioangioma is a vascular tumor in the placenta that can disrupt normal fluid dynamics. Choice B is incorrect as severe fetal hypoxia and multiple pregnancy are more likely to cause oligohydramnios, not polyhydramnios. Choice C is incorrect as uncontrolled diabetes mellitus and anemia are associated with macrosomia and not polyhydramnios. Choice D is incorrect because Rhesus D isoimmunisation and postdatism are not typically linked to polyhydramnios.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B (GCS of 3 to 8 and hypotension) because hypotension is not a specific indication for intracranial pressure (ICP) monitoring according to the Brain Trauma Foundation guidelines. The rationale is that hypotension is a systemic issue affecting overall perfusion, whereas ICP monitoring is specifically for assessing intracranial dynamics. A, C, and D are incorrect choices because they all involve conditions that could potentially indicate increased intracranial pressure and the need for monitoring. A) Abnormal head CT indicates structural brain injury, C) age > 40 is a risk factor for poor outcomes after traumatic brain injury, and D) bradycardia can be a sign of increased ICP affecting brainstem function. Therefore, these conditions warrant ICP monitoring according to guidelines.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Footling. When a hand/foot lies alongside the presenting part, it indicates a footling presentation where the foot is presenting first. This is a type of breech presentation, where the baby's buttocks or feet come out first. A transverse presentation would mean the baby is lying sideways, and an unstable lie refers to the baby's position not being fixed. Therefore, the presence of a hand/foot alongside the presenting part specifically indicates a footling presentation, making choice A the correct answer.