Nursing Process Practice Questions

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: status of client�s tetanus immunization. It is critical because an open fracture poses a risk of infection, and tetanus prophylaxis is necessary to prevent tetanus infection. Tetanus is caused by a bacterium commonly found in soil and can enter the body through open wounds. Assessing the client's tetanus immunization status helps determine the need for a tetanus booster to prevent potential complications. Incorrect choices: B: Current blood alcohol level - While relevant to the situation, the priority in this case is preventing infection from the open fracture. C: Support systems available at home to assist with care - Important for discharge planning but not the immediate priority. D: Last time client voided - Not critical in this scenario compared to preventing infection from the open fracture.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Implementation. In this step of the nursing process, the nurse is carrying out the care plan based on the identified nursing diagnoses. The nurse is actively providing care and interventions to meet the patient's needs. Assessment (A) is the initial step where data is collected and analyzed. Planning (B) is where goals and interventions are determined based on assessment findings. Evaluation (D) is the final step where the nurse assesses the effectiveness of the care provided. In this scenario, the nurse has already completed the care plan and is now executing the plan by implementing the interventions, making choice C the correct answer.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the internal mammary and internal thoracic arteries in the chest are commonly used for grafting due to their size, durability, and long-term patency. These arteries have a better track record for successful grafting procedures compared to the other options. The basic and cephalic veins in the arm (Option A) are typically used for venous procedures, not arterial grafting. The saphenous vein in the leg (Option C) is also commonly used for grafting, but the internal mammary and internal thoracic arteries are preferred for their better outcomes. The radial artery in the arm (Option D) is less commonly used for grafting compared to the internal mammary and internal thoracic arteries.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Rationale: Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose. It works by replenishing glutathione, which helps neutralize the toxic metabolite of acetaminophen. Pentostatin, Fludarabine, and Auranofin are not antidotes for acetaminophen overdose and are used for different conditions. Acetylcysteine is the correct choice as it directly counteracts the toxic effects of acetaminophen.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: fluid volume deficit. In diabetes insipidus, there is an excessive amount of dilute urine excreted, leading to dehydration and fluid volume deficit. The posterior pituitary tumor causes a deficiency in antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which regulates water reabsorption in the kidneys. As a result, the client experiences polyuria and polydipsia, leading to fluid volume deficit. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because diabetes insipidus does not cause fluid volume excess, incontinence, or diarrhea. The key is to recognize the pathophysiology of diabetes insipidus and its impact on fluid balance.