medical microbiology test bank

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trichomonas vaginalis. Trichomonas vaginalis is a sexually transmitted protozoan that causes trichomoniasis. The pear-shaped flagellated protozoa with an undulating membrane described in the question match the morphology of Trichomonas vaginalis. It is typically found in vaginal discharge of infected individuals. Giardia lamblia (B) is a different protozoan that causes giardiasis and has a distinct morphology of a teardrop shape with flagella. Trypanosoma brucei (C) causes African sleeping sickness and Leishmania donovani (D) causes visceral leishmaniasis, both of which have different morphologies and clinical presentations compared to Trichomonas vaginalis.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fluconazole. Rationale: 1. Candidiasis is a fungal infection, so an antimycotic agent is needed. 2. β-lactam antibiotics like ampicillin can lead to fungal overgrowth, necessitating an antimycotic. 3. Fluconazole is an antifungal agent effective against Candida species. 4. Streptomycin is an antibiotic, not an antifungal. 5. Phthalylsulfathiazole is an antibacterial sulfonamide, not an antifungal. 6. Ampicillin is an antibiotic, not an antifungal.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Polar placement of volutin granules. This feature is indicative of Corynebacterium diphtheria. Volutin granules are metachromatic granules found in the polar region of the bacterial cell, which is characteristic of this species. This feature helps differentiate it from other bacteria. Explanation: A: Fence-like position of the agent's cells is not a specific morphologic feature of Corynebacterium diphtheria. B: Spores that exceed cells in diameter is not a characteristic feature of Corynebacterium diphtheria. D: Presence of the capsule is not a distinguishing morphologic feature of Corynebacterium diphtheria. In summary, the polar placement of volutin granules is the most indicative feature for determining the type of agent as Corynebacterium diphtheria, making it the correct choice.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Saddle nose is a condition where the bridge of the nose collapses, a characteristic feature of congenital syphilis. This occurs due to inflammation and destruction of cartilage. Syphilis is caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. CMV, Rubella, and Toxoplasmosis do not typically cause saddle nose. CMV can result in hearing loss, Rubella can lead to cataracts and heart defects, and Toxoplasmosis may cause hydrocephalus or chorioretinitis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neisseria meningitidis. This bacterium is a Gram-negative diplococcus commonly associated with meningitis. The patient's symptoms of fever, headache, and neck stiffness are classic signs of meningococcal meningitis. Neisseria meningitidis is known to cause outbreaks in crowded settings. Streptococcus pneumoniae (Choice B) is a common cause of bacterial meningitis but typically appears as Gram-positive cocci. Haemophilus influenzae (Choice C) can also cause meningitis but is more commonly seen in unvaccinated children. Klebsiella pneumoniae (Choice D) is a Gram-negative bacterium but is not a typical causative agent of meningitis.