ADPIE Nursing Process Questions

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: decrease resident intestinal flora. Lactulose is a synthetic sugar that is not absorbed in the intestine and is used to decrease ammonia levels in patients with hepatic encephalopathy by promoting the growth of beneficial gut bacteria that help metabolize ammonia. This action helps reduce the toxic effects of ammonia on the brain. A: prevent constipation - Lactulose may help with constipation, but its primary action in this scenario is to decrease resident intestinal flora. C: increase intestinal peristalsis - Lactulose does not directly increase peristalsis. D: prevent portal hypertension - Lactulose does not have a direct effect on preventing portal hypertension.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because modifying the care plan during the evaluation phase involves making changes based on the client's response to interventions. By adding a new intervention to address an unmet goal, the nurse demonstrates critical thinking and adaptability in response to the client's needs. This action shows that the nurse is actively assessing and revising the care plan to ensure it is effective in meeting the client's goals. Choice B is incorrect because routine monitoring is part of the assessment and implementation phases, not specifically related to modifying the care plan during evaluation. Choice C is incorrect as administering medication is part of the implementation phase and does not necessarily involve modifying the care plan. Choice D is also incorrect as completing discharge paperwork is typically part of the discharge planning phase, not the evaluation phase where modifications to the care plan are made based on client outcomes.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Direct bilirubin level of 2 mg/dl. Acetaminophen toxicity can lead to liver damage, causing an increase in bilirubin levels. Direct bilirubin specifically indicates liver function. A: Sodium level is not related to acetaminophen toxicity. C: Prothrombin time is a measure of blood clotting, not indicative of acetaminophen toxicity. D: Platelet count is not affected by acetaminophen toxicity.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step 1: Safety First - The nurse's priority is patient safety. Without vital signs, medication administration can be unsafe. Step 2: Accountability - The nurse must ensure accurate and timely vital signs recording before making clinical decisions. Step 3: Delegation - Asking the NAP to record vital signs aligns with their role and helps maintain a reliable record. Step 4: Proactive Approach - By having the NAP record vital signs, the nurse can make informed decisions based on accurate data. Summary: A: Incorrect - Proceeding with medications without vital signs can risk patient safety. B: Incorrect - Waiting to review vital signs later can delay necessary interventions. D: Incorrect - Omitting vital signs is negligent and compromises patient care.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because hyperventilating James with 100% oxygen before and after suctioning can lead to oxygen toxicity. The rationale is as follows: 1. Hyperventilation with 100% oxygen can lead to increased oxygen levels in the blood, potentially causing oxygen toxicity. 2. Oxygen toxicity can result in lung damage and other complications. 3. It is not recommended to administer 100% oxygen continuously, especially in high concentrations. Therefore, Wilma committing an error by hyperventilating James with 100% oxygen. Other choices are incorrect because B is a common practice to help loosen secretions, C is correct suctioning technique, and D is a reasonable frequency for suctioning depending on the client's condition.