ATI RN
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Question 1 of 5
Listeria monocytogenes are:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Gram-positive rod-shaped bacteria. Listeria monocytogenes is a Gram-positive bacterium, as it retains the crystal violet stain during the Gram staining process. The bacteria are rod-shaped, not spherical. Choice A is incorrect as Listeria monocytogenes is not Gram-negative. Choice D is incorrect as Listeria monocytogenes does fall under the category of Gram-positive bacteria. The key is to remember the characteristics of Listeria monocytogenes, which are Gram-positive and rod-shaped.
Question 2 of 5
The catarrhal stage of the whooping cough is characterized by:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the catarrhal stage of whooping cough is characterized by mild respiratory symptoms such as mild coughing, sneezing, or a runny nose. During this stage, the cough may start to worsen but is not yet severe. A: Incorrect - Decrease in paroxysms of coughing is not seen in the catarrhal stage; it occurs later in the paroxysmal stage. B: Incorrect - Subsequent respiratory infection for many months after the onset of pertussis is not a characteristic of the catarrhal stage. C: Incorrect - Uncontrollable coughing followed by a high pitched 'whoop' sound is typical of the paroxysmal stage, not the catarrhal stage.
Question 3 of 5
A patient suffering form tuberculosis was treated with rifampicin, which caused drug resistance of tuberculosis mycobacteria. In order to reduce mycobacteria resistance, rifampicin should be combined with the following drug:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Isoniazid. When rifampicin is used alone, there is a risk of developing resistance. Isoniazid is commonly used in combination with rifampicin to prevent resistance by targeting different mechanisms in the bacteria. Isoniazid works by inhibiting mycolic acid synthesis, while rifampicin targets RNA polymerase. This combination therapy is known as the first-line treatment for tuberculosis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not have the same mechanism of action as isoniazid and would not be effective in preventing rifampicin resistance.
Question 4 of 5
When examining a patient with a suspicion of food toxicoinfection, a doctor on duty has detected symptoms characteristic of botulism. The patient named the meals he had eaten the day before. What is the most probable cause of infection?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Homemade canned meat. Botulism is often caused by consuming improperly canned or preserved foods, particularly meats. The spores of the Clostridium botulinum bacteria can grow in anaerobic conditions, such as those found in improperly canned foods, leading to the production of the botulinum toxin. The symptoms of botulism align with those characteristic of the patient's condition. Explanation of why the other choices are incorrect: B: Custard pastry from private bakery - Unlikely to be the cause of botulism as this type of food is not typically associated with the growth of Clostridium botulinum. C: Sour cream from local dairy factory - While dairy products can sometimes be sources of foodborne illness, botulism is not commonly associated with sour cream. D: Strawberries from suburban vegetable garden - Botulism is not typically transmitted through fresh fruits or vegetables, making this an unlikely source of infection.
Question 5 of 5
Which type of bacteria can survive in extreme salty environments?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Halophiles. Halophiles are bacteria that can survive in extreme salty environments. They have adapted to thrive in high salt concentrations. Psychrophiles (A) thrive in cold temperatures, Thermophiles (C) thrive in high temperatures, and Mesophiles (D) thrive in moderate temperatures. Therefore, they are not adapted to survive in extreme salty environments like Halophiles.
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