Adult Health Nursing Test Bank

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Relieves pain by increasing pain threshold. Meperidine and codeine are opioid analgesics that work by binding to opioid receptors in the brain and spinal cord, thus increasing the pain threshold and reducing the perception of pain. This leads to pain relief without necessarily affecting sexual stimulation (choice A), craving for alcohol (choice C), or concentration/alertness (choice D). The primary physiological effect of these drugs is to modulate the perception of pain, making choice B the most appropriate answer in this context.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the pregnant woman is presenting with severe abdominal pain, passage of tissue, and cervical dilation with products of conception protruding through the cervical os at 12 weeks gestation. These are classic signs and symptoms of an incomplete abortion. Incomplete abortion occurs when not all of the products of conception are expelled from the uterus. It can present with vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain, cervical dilation, and passage of tissue. The management of incomplete abortion may involve expectant, medical, or surgical options depending on the clinical context and the patient's condition.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works in the ascending loop of Henle to inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption. Step 2: Inhibition of sodium reabsorption leads to increased water and electrolyte excretion, including potassium. Step 3: Increased potassium excretion can lead to hypokalemia, which is a common side effect of loop diuretics like furosemide. Step 4: Hypokalemia can be dangerous, especially in patients with congestive heart failure, as it can worsen cardiac function and lead to arrhythmias. Step 5: Therefore, patients with a history of congestive heart failure prescribed furosemide are at risk for developing hypokalemia due to increased potassium excretion.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Platelet count. Platelet count should be monitored closely during clopidogrel therapy because it works by inhibiting platelet aggregation, reducing the risk of clot formation. Monitoring platelet count helps assess the drug's effectiveness and prevent potential complications like bleeding or clotting events. Prothrombin time (A), activated partial thromboplastin time (B), and international normalized ratio (D) are tests that primarily assess the coagulation factors and are not directly affected by clopidogrel therapy, making them less relevant for monitoring this specific medication.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because communicating with the patient's primary care provider and community resources demonstrates continuity of care. This action ensures a seamless transition from the hospital to home by keeping all involved parties informed and involved in the patient's care. Option A (written discharge instructions only) may provide information but lacks coordination with other healthcare providers. Option B (discharging without follow-up care coordination) can lead to gaps in care. Option D (disregarding patient concerns) goes against patient-centered care and can disrupt the continuity of care.