microbiology basic and clinical principles test bank

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: destruction of the local blood supply. In osteomyelitis, the infection occurs in the bone, which has a relatively poor blood supply compared to soft tissues. This limited blood flow makes it challenging for antibiotics to reach the infection site effectively, hindering their ability to combat the infection. Destruction of the local blood supply restricts the delivery of antibiotics and immune cells to the infected bone, leading to poor treatment outcomes. Summary: - Option A is correct because the limited blood supply in bones hinders antibiotic delivery. - Option B is incorrect as denaturing by normal flora does not impact antibiotic reach to the infection site. - Option C is incorrect as inflammation and edema, while present, do not primarily hinder antibiotic delivery. - Option D is incorrect as excessive pus production does not directly impede antibiotic access to the infection site.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Gram-positive cocci in chains suggest Streptococcus species. Step 2: Catalase-negative eliminates Staphylococcus aureus. Step 3: Beta-hemolytic on blood agar matches Streptococcus pyogenes. Step 4: Streptococcus pyogenes is a common cause of sore throat (pharyngitis). Summary: A: Streptococcus pyogenes - Correct due to Gram-positive cocci in chains, catalase-negative, beta-hemolytic, and common cause of sore throat. B: Staphylococcus aureus - Incorrect due to catalase-positive. C: Streptococcus pneumoniae - Incorrect due to alpha-hemolytic. D: Enterococcus faecalis - Incorrect due to not being beta-hemolytic.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Mycolic acid. Ziehl-Neelsen method is used to stain acid-fast bacteria, such as Mycobacterium species. Mycolic acid in the cell wall of these bacteria resists decolorization, leading to red-colored bacilli on a blue background. Capsule, flagella, and endospores do not play a role in this staining property. Capsules are usually stained using special techniques, flagella are not typically visible with this stain, and endospores are stained using the Schaeffer-Fulton method.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The most likely diagnosis is A: Pneumonic plague. The patient's symptoms align with the presentation of pneumonic plague, caused by the bacterium Yersinia pestis. Symptoms include high fever, severe headache, dyspnea, cough with bloody sputum, and cyanosis. The characteristic bubonic plague lymphadenopathy may be absent in the pneumonic form. The patient's recent travel history to India also raises suspicion, as plague is endemic in some regions. The other choices can be ruled out based on the patient's symptoms and presentation. Miliary tuberculosis typically presents with diffuse miliary nodules on imaging. Influenza typically presents with more generalized symptoms and does not usually cause rusty sputum. Ornithosis is caused by Chlamydophila psittaci and usually presents with pneumonia-like symptoms after exposure to infected birds.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Propionibacterium acnes. This bacterium is not a fungus, but a common skin bacteria. Fungal vaginitis is typically caused by Candida albicans or other fungal species, not by bacteria like Escherichia coli, Streptococcus agalactiae, or Klebsiella oxytoca. Propionibacterium acnes is not associated with vaginal infections, making it the correct answer in this context.