microbiology chapter 1 test bank

Questions 80

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

microbiology chapter 1 test bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

In which of the following GIT infections, the pathogenesis consists mainly of invasion and intraepithelial multiplication without generalization of infectious process:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Shigella invades and multiplies within the intestinal epithelial cells, causing inflammation and tissue damage locally. 2. It does not spread systemically, unlike Yersinia enterocolitica and Listeria monocytogenes. 3. Shigella's pathogenesis is focused on invasion and multiplication at the site of infection, leading to symptoms of dysentery. 4. Yersinia enterocolitica and Listeria monocytogenes can disseminate beyond the gastrointestinal tract, causing systemic infections. Summary: - A (Yersinia enterocolitica) and B (Listeria monocytogenes) are incorrect as they can generalize the infectious process. - C (Shigella) is correct as it mainly involves invasion and intraepithelial multiplication without spreading systemically.

Question 2 of 5

Symptoms of prostatitis include:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Prostatitis is inflammation of the prostate gland, leading to symptoms like painful urination, fever/chills, and weak urine flow. Painful urination is due to irritation of the urinary tract by the inflamed prostate. Fever/chills indicate an infection, common in prostatitis. Weak urine flow is due to obstruction caused by the inflamed prostate. Choice A is incorrect as muscle aches, sore throat, and swollen lymph nodes are not typical symptoms of prostatitis. Choice B is incorrect as painful joints and nausea are not characteristic symptoms. Choice D is almost identical to the correct answer but includes an extra symptom of painful joints, which is not associated with prostatitis.

Question 3 of 5

Which one is true about the laboratory diagnosis of urinary tract infections

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because it encompasses the true statements regarding the laboratory diagnosis of urinary tract infections. A: Bacteriuria of less than 10^5 can be significant in treated patients due to the development of antibiotic resistance. B: Staphylococcus aureus, Salmonella typhi, and Mycobacterium tuberculosis may be significant regardless of quantity due to their pathogenic nature. C: Leukocyturia indicates inflammation, and even a lower number of leukocytes can be clinically significant. Therefore, option D covers all these aspects making it the correct choice.

Question 4 of 5

Simple nutritive media are:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Meat-peptone agar, as it provides a simple nutritive media for bacterial growth. This agar contains meat extract and peptone, which are good sources of nutrients for bacterial growth. Glucose broth (A) is a liquid medium with glucose but lacks other essential nutrients. Ascites (serum) agar (B) is a selective medium used for detecting pathogens in clinical samples. Blood agar (D) is a differential medium used to distinguish different types of bacteria based on hemolytic reactions. Meat-peptone agar is the simplest and most general-purpose medium among the options provided.

Question 5 of 5

From urine of a 14-year-old boy with the exacerbation of secondary obstructive pyelonephritis Pseudomonas aeruginosa was isolated with a titer of 1000000 microbes per 1 ml. Which antibiotic is most advisable to be administered in this case?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ciprofloxacin. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is commonly resistant to Ampicillin, Cefazolinum, and Azithromycin. Ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic known for its efficacy against Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Its broad spectrum and ability to penetrate tissues make it the most advisable choice for treating secondary obstructive pyelonephritis caused by this pathogen.

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