MSN 570 Advanced Pathophysiology Final 2024

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MSN 570 Advanced Pathophysiology Final 2024 Questions

Question 1 of 5

In which disorder does a Staphylococcus aureus organism produce a toxin leading to exfoliation and large blister formation?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Herpes simplex I virus.' This disorder is known as Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS), where a Staphylococcus aureus organism produces an exfoliative toxin leading to skin exfoliation and large blister formation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Herpes simplex viruses (I and II) cause different types of skin lesions and do not lead to exfoliation and blister formation. Necrotizing fasciitis is a severe soft tissue infection, while cellulitis is a bacterial skin infection that does not typically involve exfoliation and blister formation like in SSSS.

Question 2 of 5

In chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, the inflammatory response predominantly involves:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, the inflammatory response predominantly involves neutrophils. Neutrophils play a key role in COPD due to their involvement in initiating and sustaining the inflammatory process. Eosinophils are more commonly associated with asthma rather than COPD. Monocytes are less involved in the inflammatory response in COPD compared to neutrophils. The choice 'cells' is too broad and vague to be a specific answer in this context.

Question 3 of 5

In which patient is alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency the likely cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency is a genetic cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). It is more common in younger patients with a history of smoking at a younger age, like the 30-year-old who has smoked for 3 years. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to be associated with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency as COPD in these cases is more likely due to smoking and environmental exposures.

Question 4 of 5

A 25-year-old just had a colonoscopy and was diagnosed with Crohn disease. Which of the following is consistent with this diagnosis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Crohn's disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract. Right lower quadrant cramping is consistent with Crohn's disease as it commonly involves the terminal ileum, which is located in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen. Severe bloody diarrhea is more characteristic of ulcerative colitis, another type of inflammatory bowel disease. Nausea and vomiting are not specific symptoms of Crohn's disease. Crohn's disease can affect any part of the digestive tract, not just the rectum, so it is not accurate to say it mostly affects the rectum.

Question 5 of 5

In nephritic syndrome compared to nephrotic syndrome, there is:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In nephritic syndrome, the presence of red blood cell casts in the urine is a characteristic finding, reflecting glomerular inflammation and damage. This differentiates it from nephrotic syndrome, where red blood cell casts are typically absent. Choice A is incorrect because nephritic syndrome usually presents with less albuminuria compared to nephrotic syndrome. Choice B is incorrect as hematuria is a common feature of nephritic syndrome. Choice D is incorrect as hypoalbuminemia is more commonly associated with nephrotic syndrome.

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