openstax microbiology test bank

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Escherichia coli. E. coli typically produces red colonies on Endo agar due to its ability to ferment lactose. This results in the production of acid, causing the colonies to appear red. Salmonella and Shigella are non-lactose fermenters, so they would appear colorless or transparent on Endo agar. Proteus vulgaris is not commonly associated with red colonies on Endo agar. Therefore, based on the characteristic lactose fermentation pattern, E. coli is the most likely microorganism in this scenario.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: The polysaccharide capsule. The capsule of Neisseria meningitidis plays a crucial role in its virulence by preventing phagocytosis, allowing the bacteria to evade the host's immune system. This leads to increased survival and colonization in the host. Choice B: The beta lactamase is incorrect because it is an enzyme that breaks down beta-lactam antibiotics and does not directly contribute to the virulence of Neisseria meningitidis. Choice C: The erythrogenic toxin is incorrect as this toxin is produced by Streptococcus pyogenes, not Neisseria meningitidis. Choice D: None of the above is incorrect as the polysaccharide capsule is indeed a key virulence factor of Neisseria meningitidis.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: PCR. PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) is the most suitable method for detecting genitourinary chlamydiosis due to its high sensitivity and specificity in detecting the genetic material of Chlamydia trachomatis. PCR can detect even low levels of the pathogen, providing accurate results. A: Cultural diagnostic is not as sensitive as PCR and may take longer to produce results. B: ELISA detects antibodies, which may not be present in early stages of infection, leading to false-negative results. C: CFT (Complement Fixation Test) is an older method with lower sensitivity compared to PCR for detecting chlamydiosis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Acyclovir is the correct answer because it is an antiviral drug used to treat herpes simplex and varicella-zoster viruses, not influenza. Tamiflu, Amantadine, and Relenza are used to treat influenza by inhibiting viral replication or easing symptoms. Acyclovir's mechanism of action targets different viruses, making it ineffective for treating influenza.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Erysipelas. Erysipelas is a type of acute infection caused by group A Streptococcus bacteria. This bacteria infects the upper dermis and superficial lymphatics, leading to a distinct raised, well-demarcated, erythematous skin lesion. The other choices are incorrect because: A Carbuncle is a deep skin infection involving hair follicles, B Impetigo is a superficial skin infection caused by Staphylococcus or Streptococcus bacteria, and D Acne is a chronic inflammatory skin condition not typically caused by group A Streptococcus.