ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023

Questions 73

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 Questions

Question 1 of 5

How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with a history of hypertension who is non-compliant with medication?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Educating the patient on the importance of medication is crucial when dealing with a patient who is non-compliant with their hypertension medication. By providing information about the significance of the medication in controlling blood pressure and preventing complications, the patient may be more motivated to adhere to the prescribed treatment. Reassessing the patient in 6 months (choice B) may lead to further deterioration of the patient's condition if non-compliance continues. Referring the patient to a specialist (choice C) may be necessary in some cases but should be preceded by efforts to improve compliance. Discontinuing the medication (choice D) without addressing the non-compliance issue can have serious health consequences for the patient.

Question 2 of 5

What is the primary nursing action for a patient with confusion post-surgery?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the primary nursing action for a patient with confusion post-surgery because it helps address any potential hypoxia that may be contributing to the patient's confusion. While repositioning the patient, monitoring vital signs, and checking oxygen saturation are important nursing interventions, administering oxygen takes precedence in ensuring adequate oxygenation levels, which is crucial in managing post-surgery confusion.

Question 3 of 5

A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Stridor is a high-pitched sound that indicates airway obstruction and is the priority finding to report following a thyroidectomy. In this situation, airway compromise is a critical concern that requires immediate intervention to ensure adequate oxygenation. While calcium level (Choice A) and serum sodium level (Choice B) are important assessments post-thyroidectomy, they do not represent an immediate threat to the client's airway. A respiratory rate of 18/min (Choice C) falls within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate risk to the client's airway compared to the presence of stridor.

Question 4 of 5

Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients receiving furosemide?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance necessitates close monitoring to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypercalcemia is not a common side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia is more commonly associated with other medications like thiazide diuretics. Hyperkalemia is the opposite electrolyte imbalance and is not typically seen with furosemide use.

Question 5 of 5

A nurse is planning care for a client who has Alzheimer's disease and demonstrates confusion and wandering behavior. Which of the following should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to dim the lighting in the client's room. Dim lighting can help reduce confusion and agitation in clients with Alzheimer's disease. Placing the client in seclusion (Choice A) is not recommended as it can lead to feelings of isolation and distress. Requesting PRN restraints (Choice B) should be avoided in clients with Alzheimer's as it can increase agitation and pose safety risks. Leaving one side rail up on the client's bed (Choice D) may not directly address the client's confusion and wandering behavior.

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