ATI RN
Physical Assessment Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
How much does cardiovascular risk increase for each increment of 20 mm Hg systolic and 10 mm Hg diastolic in blood pressure?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Research studies have shown that for every increment of 20 mm Hg in systolic blood pressure and 10 mm Hg in diastolic blood pressure, the cardiovascular risk approximately doubles. Therefore, the cardiovascular risk increases by 50% for each increment of 20 mm Hg systolic and 10 mm Hg diastolic in blood pressure. This underlines the importance of maintaining healthy blood pressure levels to reduce the risk of cardiovascular diseases.
Question 2 of 5
His cardiac, lung, and abdominal examinations are normal. He has no inguinal hernia, but on his digital rectal examination you palpate a soft, smooth, nontender pedunculated mass on the posterior wall of the rectum. What anal, rectal, or prostate disorder best fits his presentation?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A rectal polyp is a growth that originates from the inner lining of the rectum and protrudes into the rectal canal. It may present as a soft, smooth, nontender mass on digital rectal examination. Rectal polyps are usually benign, but some may have the potential to become cancerous if left untreated. Therefore, it is important to evaluate and remove polyps to prevent complications. In this case, the description of a pedunculated mass on the posterior wall of the rectum is most suggestive of a rectal polyp.
Question 3 of 5
You are a student in the vascular surgery clinic. You are asked to perform a physical examination on a patient with known peripheral vascular disease in the legs. Which of the following aspects is important to note when you perform your examination?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When examining a patient with known peripheral vascular disease in the legs, it is important to note the size, symmetry, and skin color of the lower extremities. These aspects can provide valuable information about the circulation and potential complications related to the disease. Changes in size, such as muscle wasting or atrophy, can indicate poor circulation and muscle ischemia. Asymmetry between the two legs may point to a significant difference in blood supply to the limbs. Skin color changes, such as pallor or cyanosis, can suggest impaired blood flow. Monitoring and documenting these findings are crucial for assessing the progression or improvement of the disease and guiding treatment interventions.
Question 4 of 5
A 50-year-old body builder is upset by a letter of denial from his life insurance company. He is very lean but has gained 2 pounds over the past 6 months. You personally performed his health assessment and found no problems whatsoever. He says he is classified as "high risk" because of obesity. What should you do next?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Since the life insurance company is classifying the body builder as "high risk" due to obesity, it is important to assess whether his weight gain is primarily fat accumulation around the waist. Measuring his waist circumference can provide valuable information about the distribution of body fat. Abdominal obesity, indicated by an increased waist measurement, is a significant risk factor for health issues such as heart disease, diabetes, and metabolic syndrome. By measuring his waist, you can determine if his weight gain is indeed a cause for concern in terms of health risks, rather than just considering the overall weight gain. This information can help you provide more targeted advice on how to address any potential health concerns related to the weight gain.
Question 5 of 5
On visualization of the penis he is circumcised and there are no lesions and no discharge from the meatus. His scrotal skin is tense and red. Palpation of the left testicle causes severe pain and the patient begins to cry. His prostate examination is unremarkable. His cremasteric reflex is absent on the left but is normal on the right. By catheter you get a urine sample and the analysis is unremarkable. You send the boy with his mother to the emergency room for further workup. What is the most likely diagnosis for this young man's symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The presentation of severe testicular pain with a red, tense scrotum, and absent cremasteric reflex on one side is highly concerning for testicular torsion. Testicular torsion is a urologic emergency that occurs when the spermatic cord twists, leading to compromised blood flow to the testicle. The affected testicle can become ischemic and necrotic within hours, necessitating prompt diagnosis and intervention to avoid permanent damage or loss of the testicle.
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