mcgraw hill microbiology test bank

Questions 82

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

mcgraw hill microbiology test bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

Herpes simplex infections on lips and in the mouth are most commonly caused by:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: HSV-1. Herpes simplex infections on lips and in the mouth are most commonly caused by HSV-1 due to its preference for infecting oral mucosa. HSV-2 typically causes genital herpes. HSV-6 and HSV-7 are less common and not typically associated with oral infections. Therefore, based on the typical presentation and epidemiology of herpes simplex infections, HSV-1 is the most likely cause in this scenario.

Question 2 of 5

Which of the following bacteria is responsible for causing bacterial meningitis?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because all three bacteria (Neisseria meningitidis, Haemophilus influenzae, and Streptococcus pneumoniae) can cause bacterial meningitis. Neisseria meningitidis is a common cause of meningococcal meningitis, Haemophilus influenzae can cause H. influenzae meningitis, and Streptococcus pneumoniae is a leading cause of pneumococcal meningitis. Therefore, all of the above choices are correct. The other choices are incorrect because each of the bacteria listed can independently cause bacterial meningitis, so none of them alone can be the sole correct answer.

Question 3 of 5

A 23 year old female patient complains about periodical chill and body temperature rise up to 40oC, sense of heat taking turns with profuse sweating. The patient has had already 3 attacks that came once in two days and lasted 12 hours. She has lived in Africa for the last 2 months. Liver and spleen are enlarged. In blood: erythrocytes - 2,5x1012/l. What is the most probable diagnosis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The most probable diagnosis is A: Malaria. The patient's symptoms of periodic chills, high fever, and profuse sweating, along with living in Africa where malaria is endemic, strongly suggest malaria. The enlarged liver and spleen are consistent with malaria infection. The low erythrocyte count indicates hemolysis, a common feature of malaria. Spotted fever and sepsis do not typically present with the same pattern of symptoms and travel history as seen in this case. Haemolytic anaemia would not explain the patient's fever episodes and other symptoms. Therefore, based on the symptoms, travel history, and laboratory findings, malaria is the most likely diagnosis.

Question 4 of 5

In an agar slant, bacterial colonies that appear separate or semiconfluent are referred to as:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: beaded. In an agar slant, beaded colonies appear as separate or semiconfluent, forming small, round colonies with gaps between them. This term accurately describes the appearance of the colonies in this context. A: Filiform colonies are dense and opaque with smooth edges, not separate or semiconfluent. B: Echinulate colonies have spiny projections, not the characteristic of separate or semiconfluent growth. D: Effuse colonies spread out extensively and lack defined borders, unlike the distinct appearance of separate or semiconfluent colonies.

Question 5 of 5

A patient with pulmonary tuberculosis is prescribed the most effective antituberculosis antibiotic. Name this drug:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rifampicin is the correct answer because it is a first-line antibiotic for treating pulmonary tuberculosis. It has excellent bactericidal activity and penetrates well into lung tissues where the infection is located. Rifampicin is also known for preventing the development of resistance. Tetracycline (A) and Furasolidone (B) are not commonly used for tuberculosis treatment. Bactrim (D) is a combination of sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim, not effective for tuberculosis treatment.

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