microbiology chapter 14 test bank

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: mycorrhizae. Mycorrhizae are symbiotic fungi that form a mutualistic relationship with plant roots, aiding in the absorption of minerals and water. They enhance the plant's nutrient uptake capacity, promoting plant growth and health. Decomposers (A) break down dead organic matter, yeasts (C) are single-celled fungi used in fermentation, and molds (D) are fungi that grow in multicellular filaments. These options do not specifically assist plant roots in mineral and water absorption like mycorrhizae do.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC) attach to enterocytes via a type III secretion system. 2. Once attached, they form attaching and effacing lesions on the microvilli, leading to microvillus destruction. 3. This mechanism allows EPEC to cause diarrhea by disrupting the normal absorptive function of the intestines. Summary: - B (They are invasive and produce enterotoxin) is incorrect because EPEC are non-invasive and do not produce enterotoxins. - C (Cause disease clinically similar to bacterial) is vague and does not provide specific information about EPEC pathogenesis. - D (None of the above) is incorrect as A is the correct explanation for EPEC pathogenicity.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neisseria gonorrhoeae. This bacterium is a gram-negative diplococci commonly associated with gonorrhea, which presents with symptoms like painful urination. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is known to infect the urethra in males. Escherichia coli, Proteus vulgaris, and Klebsiella pneumoniae are all gram-negative bacteria, but they are not typically associated with urethral discharge or gonorrhea. E. coli is commonly associated with urinary tract infections, Proteus vulgaris with wound infections, and Klebsiella pneumoniae with pneumonia and other respiratory infections. Therefore, based on the patient's symptoms and the characteristics of the bacteria, Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the most appropriate causative agent in this case.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gram-positive rod-shaped bacterium. Campylobacter fetus is actually a Gram-negative bacterium. This is because it has a thin peptidoglycan layer in its cell wall, which does not retain the crystal violet stain used in the Gram-staining technique. It appears red or pink under a microscope after counterstaining with safranin. Therefore, statement A is incorrect. B: Optimal temperature for cultivation 35-37C - Correct, as Campylobacter fetus thrives at this temperature range. C: Opportunistic pathogen causes infections usually in newborns, immunocompromised patients, and cancer - Correct, as Campylobacter fetus can cause infections in these populations. D: Fastidious, microaerophile - Correct, as Campylobacter fetus is fastidious and requires specific growth conditions, including low oxygen levels.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Nigrosin is used in negative staining, where the background is stained instead of the cells themselves. This technique helps highlight the morphology and structure of cells that may be damaged by traditional staining methods. Nigrosin is negatively charged and repels the negatively charged bacterial cells, resulting in a clear halo around the cells. This process is particularly useful for observing capsules and determining cell size and shape. The other options are incorrect because simple staining uses a single dye to color the entire cell, gram staining involves a series of dyes to differentiate between gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria, and acid-fast staining is used to detect acid-fast organisms like Mycobacterium.