Nursing Process Practice Questions Quizlet

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Pathological fractures. In multiple myeloma, abnormal plasma cells can weaken the bones, leading to fractures even with minimal trauma. The nurse should monitor for signs of bone pain, decreased mobility, and pathological fractures to prevent complications. Uncontrolled bleeding (A) is not typically associated with multiple myeloma. Liver engorgement (B) is more commonly seen in conditions like congestive heart failure or liver disease. Respiratory distress (C) is not a common manifestation of multiple myeloma. Therefore, the nurse should focus on monitoring for pathological fractures as a priority in a patient with multiple myeloma.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: During outcome identification and planning, outcomes are derived from the problem statement of the nursing diagnoses. This is because the problem statement clearly defines the patient's health issue or condition that needs to be addressed, thus guiding the development of specific, measurable, and achievable outcomes. The defining characteristics (choice A) describe the signs and symptoms of the health problem but do not directly lead to outcome identification. The related factors (choice B) represent the potential causes or contributing factors to the health problem and are not used to derive outcomes. The database (choice D) consists of the patient's health history, assessment data, and laboratory findings, which are essential for diagnosing but do not directly determine outcomes. Therefore, the correct answer is C as it directly informs the outcomes to be achieved.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step 1: Hypernatremia is defined by elevated serum sodium levels (>145mEq/L). Step 2: Serum osmolality of 245mOsm/kg is high, consistent with hypernatremia. Step 3: Urine specific gravity below 1.003 indicates dilute urine, a common finding in hypernatremia. Step 4: The combination of elevated serum sodium, high serum osmolality, and low urine specific gravity confirms hypernatremia. Summary: A: Incorrect, as high serum osmolality (not 245mOsm/kg) is associated with hypernatremia. B: Incorrect, as low urine specific gravity (not below 1.003) is seen in hypernatremia. C: Incorrect, as serum sodium needs to be >145mEq/L to indicate hypernatremia.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Clonidine (Catapres). Clonidine is known to cause headache as a side effect due to its mechanism of action affecting blood pressure regulation in the brain. Furosemide (A) is a diuretic that typically causes electrolyte imbalances, not headaches. Atenolol (C) is a beta-blocker used for hypertension, which can cause fatigue but not typically headaches. Adalat (D) is a calcium channel blocker that usually causes peripheral edema, not headaches.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice A is correct: 1. Laryngeal cancer is strongly linked to smoking and alcohol consumption. 2. Both smoking and alcohol use are modifiable risk factors, meaning they can be prevented. 3. By avoiding smoking and excessive alcohol intake, individuals can significantly reduce their risk of developing laryngeal cancer. 4. Therefore, laryngeal cancer is considered one of the most preventable types of cancer. Summary of why the other choices are incorrect: B. Inhaling polluted air can be a risk factor for laryngeal cancer, so this statement is inaccurate. C. Laryngeal cancer occurs more frequently in men than women, so this statement is incorrect. D. Squamous cell carcinoma, not adenocarcinoma, is the most common type of laryngeal cancer, making this statement incorrect.