Critical Care Nursing Cardiac Questions

Questions 80

ATI RN

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Critical Care Nursing Cardiac Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

Following insertion of a central venous catheter, the nurse obtains a stat chest x-ray film to verify proper catheter placement. The radiologist reports to the nurse: �The tip of the catheter is located in the superior vena cava.� What is the best inter pretation of these results by the nurse?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: The distal tip of the catheter is in the appropriate position. Rationale: 1. The superior vena cava is a desirable location for a central venous catheter tip placement as it is close to the heart for rapid medication delivery. 2. Catheter tip in the superior vena cava allows for proper venous return and minimizes the risk of complications. 3. The nurse does not need to remove or adjust the catheter if the tip is in the superior vena cava. 4. Advancing the catheter into the pulmonary artery (option D) would be incorrect as it can lead to serious complications. Incorrect choices: A: Incorrect because placement in the superior vena cava is acceptable. B: Incorrect as placement in the superior vena cava does not increase the risk of ventricular dysrhythmias. D: Incorrect as advancing the catheter into the pulmonary artery is unnecessary and risky.

Question 2 of 5

The nurse is caring for a critically ill trauma patient who is expected to be hospitalized for an extended period of time. Which of the following nursing interventions would improve the patient�s well-being and reduce anxiety the most?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because pet therapy has been shown to reduce anxiety and improve well-being in hospitalized patients. Interacting with therapy dogs can provide comfort, companionship, and a distraction from the hospital environment. Bringing in a therapy dog can help the trauma patient feel more relaxed and supported during their extended hospital stay. Choice A may be comforting but does not address the therapeutic benefits of pet therapy. Choice C may provide soothing music, but pet therapy has been specifically proven to reduce anxiety in patients. Choice D, observing fish in an aquarium, may be calming but does not involve the interactive benefits of pet therapy.

Question 3 of 5

A nurse is caring for an elderly man recently admitted to the ICU following a stroke. She assesses his cognitive function using a new cognitive assessment test she learned about in a recent article in a nursing journal. She then brings a cup of water and a straw to the patient because she observes that his lips are dry. Later, she has the patient sit in a wheelchair and takes him to have some blood tests performed. He objects at first, saying that he can walk on his own, but the nurse explains that it is hospital policy to use the wheelchair. That evening, she recognizes signs of an imminent stroke in the patient and immediately pages the physician. Which action taken by the nurse is the best example of evidence-based practice?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Recognizing signs of an imminent stroke and paging the physician. This action exemplifies evidence-based practice as it involves timely identification of a critical medical condition based on clinical assessment and prompt communication with the physician for further intervention. This aligns with the principles of evidence-based practice, which emphasize the integration of best available evidence with clinical expertise and patient values. The other choices are incorrect: A: Giving the patient a cup of water - While providing hydration is important for patient care, it does not demonstrate evidence-based practice in this scenario. B: Transferring the patient in a wheelchair - Although using a wheelchair may be hospital policy, it does not directly relate to evidence-based practice in this context. D: Using the cognitive assessment test - While assessing cognitive function is essential, it does not directly address the immediate medical needs of the patient as recognizing signs of an imminent stroke does.

Question 4 of 5

The patient diagnosed with acute respiratory distress synd rome (ARDS) would exhibit which symptom?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because in ARDS, there is a severe impairment in gas exchange leading to hypoxemia. Decreasing PaO2 levels despite increased FiO2 administration indicate poor oxygenation, a hallmark of ARDS. Elevated alveolar surfactant levels (Choice B) do not directly correlate with ARDS pathophysiology. Increased lung compliance with increased FiO2 administration (Choice C) is not characteristic of ARDS, as ARDS leads to decreased lung compliance. Respiratory acidosis associated with hyperventilation (Choice D) is not a typical finding in ARDS, as hyperventilation is usually present in an attempt to compensate for hypoxemia.

Question 5 of 5

A patient with end-stage heart failure is experiencing consaibdirebr.caobmle/te dsty spnea. What is the appropriate pharmacological management of this symptom ?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administration of morphine, 5 mg IV bolus, and initiation of a continuous morphine infusion. Morphine is the preferred pharmacological management for severe dyspnea in end-stage heart failure due to its potent analgesic and anxiolytic properties. Step-by-step rationale: 1. Morphine is a potent opioid that helps relieve dyspnea by reducing anxiety, decreasing respiratory drive, and improving overall comfort. 2. The initial IV bolus of 5 mg provides rapid relief of dyspnea. 3. Initiating a continuous morphine infusion ensures sustained relief of dyspnea. 4. Midazolam (choice A) is a benzodiazepine used for sedation and anxiety, but it is not the first-line treatment for dyspnea in this scenario. 5. Increasing the midazolam (choice C) or morphine (choice D) infusions by 100% dose increments hourly is not appropriate as

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