ATI Nutrition Proctored Exam 2023

Questions 94

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ATI Nutrition Proctored Exam 2023 Questions

Question 1 of 5

Each is a characteristic manifestation of necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG), except one. Which is the exception?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Marasmus. Marasmus is a form of severe malnutrition and is not a direct manifestation of necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG). Choices A, B, and D are all characteristic manifestations of NUG. Gingival erythema, necrosis of interdental papilla, and metallic taste with foul odor are commonly associated with NUG due to the inflammatory and necrotic nature of the condition.

Question 2 of 5

Which mineral is a principal component of cell membranes?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Phosphorus is the correct answer. It is a key component of cell membranes, being part of the phospholipid bilayer that provides structure and controls the movement of substances in and out of cells. Magnesium, iron, and iodine do not serve as principal components of cell membranes. Magnesium is involved in various enzymatic reactions, iron is essential for oxygen transport, and iodine plays a role in thyroid hormone synthesis.

Question 3 of 5

A patient on a low-sodium diet should avoid which of the following foods?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Canned soup is the correct answer. Canned soups are often high in sodium due to added salt and should be avoided on a low-sodium diet. Fresh fruits (Choice A) are typically low in sodium and a good choice for a low-sodium diet. Unsalted nuts (Choice B) are also low in sodium and can be included in a low-sodium diet. Plain rice (Choice D) is a low-sodium food and can be part of a low-sodium diet.

Question 4 of 5

What symptoms would most likely be associated with a transient ischemic attack?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: confusion and difficulty speaking. These symptoms are commonly associated with a transient ischemic attack (TIA), which is a temporary blockage of blood flow to the brain. Choice B, headache and blurred vision, are more indicative of other conditions such as migraines or eye problems. Choice C, chest pain and pressure, are more characteristic of cardiac issues like a heart attack. Choice D, claudication and peripheral edema, are typical of peripheral arterial disease and not typically seen in TIAs.

Question 5 of 5

Which condition is most closely associated with a high rate of gastroesophageal reflux disease?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Pregnancy is the correct answer as it is most closely associated with a high rate of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). During pregnancy, the growing fetus exerts pressure on the stomach, leading to the backflow of stomach acid into the esophagus, causing GERD. This physiological change is a common occurrence in pregnant individuals. Conversely, anorexia, hypertension, and diabetes mellitus are not typically linked to a high rate of GERD. While these conditions have their own effects on the body, they do not directly contribute to the mechanisms that cause GERD, unlike the physical changes associated with pregnancy. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect.

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