ATI RN
Nursing Process Practice Questions Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
During outcome identification and planning, from what part of the nursing diagnoses are outcomes derived?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: During outcome identification and planning, outcomes are derived from the problem statement of the nursing diagnoses. This is because the problem statement clearly defines the patient's health issue or condition that needs to be addressed, thus guiding the development of specific, measurable, and achievable outcomes. The defining characteristics (choice A) describe the signs and symptoms of the health problem but do not directly lead to outcome identification. The related factors (choice B) represent the potential causes or contributing factors to the health problem and are not used to derive outcomes. The database (choice D) consists of the patient's health history, assessment data, and laboratory findings, which are essential for diagnosing but do not directly determine outcomes. Therefore, the correct answer is C as it directly informs the outcomes to be achieved.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the ff is a sign or symptom of asthma?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Paroxysms or shortness of breath. Asthma is characterized by episodes of wheezing, coughing, chest tightness, and shortness of breath, known as paroxysms. This symptom is caused by inflammation and constriction of the airways in response to triggers such as allergens or irritants. A: Production of abnormally thick, sticky mucus in lungs is more indicative of conditions like cystic fibrosis, not asthma. B: Faulty transport of sodium in lung cells is associated with conditions like cystic fibrosis, not asthma. D: Altered electrolyte balance in the sweat glands is a symptom of cystic fibrosis, not asthma. In summary, paroxysms or shortness of breath is a key sign of asthma due to airway inflammation and constriction, distinguishing it from the other choices that are more indicative of cystic fibrosis.
Question 3 of 5
Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for a client with Addison�s disease?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Excessive fluid volume. In Addison's disease, there is a deficiency of cortisol and aldosterone leading to sodium loss and water retention. This imbalance can result in excessive fluid volume. A) Risk for infection is not directly related to Addison's disease. B) Urinary retention is not a common symptom of Addison's disease. D) Hypothermia is not a typical manifestation of Addison's disease.
Question 4 of 5
A patient is being given penicillin via IV piggyback and develops an anaphylactic reaction. Which of the following should be the nurse�s first action?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Turn off the antibiotic. This should be the nurse's first action because in an anaphylactic reaction, stopping the administration of the causative agent is crucial to prevent further harm. Continuing the antibiotic (Choice B) can worsen the reaction. Calling the doctor (Choice A) may cause a delay in the immediate intervention needed. Calling for help (Choice C) is important but turning off the antibiotic takes precedence to stop the allergen.
Question 5 of 5
Then the drug is stopped. When should treatment resume?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: When the WBC falls to 5,000mm3. This is because a low WBC count indicates potential bone marrow suppression from the drug. Resuming treatment at this point ensures the bone marrow has recovered enough to handle the drug's effects. Summary: - Choice B: Hair regrowth is not a reliable indicator of bone marrow recovery. - Choice C: A high WBC count suggests potential toxicity, not readiness for treatment. - Choice D: Anemia is a late sign of bone marrow suppression, not an appropriate indicator to resume treatment.
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