ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 5
During an emergency response following a disaster, which client should be recommended for early discharge?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The client who is 1 day postoperative following a vertebroplasty is stable and can be discharged early. In an emergency response situation, it is crucial to prioritize clients who are medically stable and do not require immediate hospital care. The client with COPD and a respiratory rate of 44/min needs close monitoring and intervention. The client with cancer and a sealed implant for radiation therapy requires specialized care and follow-up. The client receiving heparin for deep-vein thrombosis needs ongoing anticoagulant therapy and monitoring, making early discharge not appropriate.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has septic shock. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A urinary output of 40 mL/hr is below the expected range and should be reported to the provider as it may indicate impaired kidney function, which is crucial to monitor in a client with septic shock. Choices A, C, and D are within acceptable ranges for a client with septic shock and do not indicate immediate concerns. A temperature of 38�C (100.4�F) is slightly elevated but can be expected in septic shock. A heart rate of 92/min is within the normal range for an adult. A capillary refill time of 2 seconds is also normal, indicating adequate peripheral perfusion.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has Raynaud's disease. What intervention should the nurse implement?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with Raynaud's disease is to provide information about stress management. Stress management techniques can help reduce the frequency and severity of Raynaud's episodes. Choice B is incorrect because maintaining a cool temperature can exacerbate symptoms in individuals with Raynaud's disease. Choice C is incorrect as epinephrine is not typically used for Raynaud's disease. Choice D is incorrect as glucocorticoid steroids are not the first-line treatment for Raynaud's disease.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor, and the FHR baseline has been 100/min for 15 minutes. What should the nurse suspect?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to fetal bradycardia, which is indicated by a baseline FHR of 100/min. In this scenario, the sustained low baseline FHR suggests a possible link to maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal fever (Choice A) typically presents with tachycardia rather than bradycardia in the fetus. Fetal anemia (Choice B) usually causes fetal tachycardia as a compensatory mechanism to deliver more oxygen to tissues. Chorioamnionitis (Choice D) is associated with maternal fever and an elevated fetal heart rate, not a sustained low baseline FHR.
Question 5 of 5
A client post-thyroidectomy reports tingling in their lips and fingers. The nurse should identify this finding as an indication of which of the following complications?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Tingling in the lips and fingers is a classic sign of hypocalcemia, which can occur as a complication following a thyroidectomy due to inadvertent damage to the parathyroid glands that regulate calcium levels. Hypokalemia (Choice A) presents with muscle weakness and cardiac issues, not tingling. Hyponatremia (Choice C) typically manifests with confusion, seizures, and muscle cramps. Hyperglycemia (Choice D) is associated with increased thirst, frequent urination, and fatigue.
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