ATI Mental Health Practice A

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The widow's symptoms align more closely with an adjustment disorder rather than major depression, normal grieving, or posttraumatic stress disorder. The widow's prolonged struggle in coping with the loss, characterized by emptiness, loss of self, difficulty envisioning the future, and anger towards her deceased husband, indicates an inability to adapt to the loss. These symptoms are indicative of an adjustment disorder, which typically arises in response to a significant life stressor and persists beyond what is considered a normal grieving process. Bereavement counseling can help the widow navigate her emotions and coping strategies during this challenging period.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is widely recognized as the most effective treatment for phobias. CBT helps individuals identify and change negative thought patterns and behaviors associated with their phobias, leading to long-lasting improvement and symptom reduction. Unlike psychoanalysis, which focuses on exploring unconscious conflicts, CBT provides practical strategies to address phobias directly. Medication management may be used in conjunction with therapy but is not typically considered a standalone treatment for phobias. Group therapy can be beneficial for some individuals, but CBT is specifically tailored to target and alleviate phobia symptoms effectively.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: During a panic attack, the priority intervention for the nurse is to provide reassurance and stay with the patient. This action helps reduce fear and provides a sense of safety, which can aid in calming the patient and preventing further escalation of the panic attack. Encouraging the patient to verbalize their feelings (Choice A) may be beneficial after the acute phase of the panic attack. Leaving the patient alone (Choice C) may increase feelings of abandonment and escalate the panic attack. Distracting the patient with a task (Choice D) is not recommended during a panic attack as it may divert attention but not address the underlying anxiety and fear.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Prazosin is a medication often prescribed to manage nightmares in patients with PTSD. It works by blocking the action of adrenaline on specific receptors, which helps in reducing the intensity and frequency of nightmares. While flashbacks, hypervigilance, and depression are also common symptoms of PTSD, prazosin is specifically indicated for nightmares associated with the disorder. Flashbacks are typically addressed through therapies like cognitive-behavioral therapy, hypervigilance may be managed through counseling and coping strategies, and depression may necessitate antidepressant medications or therapy tailored for depression.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Venlafaxine, an SNRI, can lead to hypertension as a side effect. This medication can cause an increase in blood pressure, particularly at higher doses. Educating the patient about this potential adverse effect is crucial to enhance awareness and monitoring for any signs or symptoms of elevated blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because venlafaxine is more likely to cause hypertension rather than hypotension, bradycardia, or hyperglycemia.