ATI RN
Nursing Process 1 Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
During a routine checkup, the nurse assesses a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) for signs and symptoms of cancer. What is the common AIDS-related cancer?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Kaposi�s sarcoma. In AIDS patients, Kaposi�s sarcoma is a common cancer caused by human herpesvirus 8. It presents as purple or brown skin lesions. Squamous cell carcinoma (A), leukemia (B), and multiple myeloma (C) are not commonly associated with AIDS. Squamous cell carcinoma is linked to sun exposure, leukemia originates in the bone marrow, and multiple myeloma is a cancer of plasma cells. Therefore, the correct answer is D due to its strong association with AIDS.
Question 2 of 5
Why should the nurse monitor angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors cautiously in clients with renal or hepatic impairment and in older adults?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: A sudden drop in BP may occur during the first 1-3 hours after the initial dose. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors can cause vasodilation, leading to a reduction in blood pressure. In clients with renal or hepatic impairment and in older adults, these medications may not be cleared from the body as efficiently, increasing the risk of hypotension. Monitoring is crucial to prevent complications. Incorrect choices: A: A sudden raise in BP is unlikely with angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors. C: Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors do not affect body temperature. D: Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors typically do not cause a sudden rise in pulse rate. In summary, monitoring for a potential drop in blood pressure is essential in vulnerable populations when using angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors.
Question 3 of 5
Nursing interventions for a patient with a diagnosis of hyponatremia includes all of the following except:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because encouraging the intake of low-sodium liquids like coffee or tea can worsen hyponatremia. Hyponatremia is a condition characterized by low sodium levels in the blood, so encouraging low-sodium liquids would further dilute the sodium levels. The other choices are correct interventions for hyponatremia: A) assessing for symptoms helps in monitoring the patient's condition, C) monitoring neurological status is crucial as hyponatremia can lead to neurological complications, and D) restricting tap water intake helps in managing fluid intake and preventing further dilution of sodium levels.
Question 4 of 5
Mr. Ramos consulted at the health center for follow up after one month of Isoniazid and Rifampicin. Which diagnostic test will have an abnormal result if the client is taking these medications?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: liver function tests. Isoniazid and Rifampicin are known to potentially cause hepatotoxicity, leading to abnormal liver function test results. Liver function tests measure enzymes and proteins that indicate liver health. Gallbladder studies (A), thyroid function tests (B), and blood sugar levels (D) are not directly affected by these medications and would not show abnormal results due to their use.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse knows that a client understands a low residue diet when he selects which of the following from the menu?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rice and lean chicken. A low residue diet aims to reduce fiber intake to ease digestion. Rice and lean chicken are low in fiber and easy to digest. Pasta with vegetables (B) contains high-fiber vegetables. Strawberry pie (C) is high in fiber due to fruit and crust. Tuna casserole (D) may contain high-fiber ingredients like noodles and vegetables. Therefore, A is the best choice for a low residue diet.
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