Microbiology Chapter 13 Test Bank

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neutralization. In this scenario, the antibotulinic serum of types A, B, and E were introduced to neutralize the botulinum toxin in the test specimen. The serological reaction applied here involves the neutralization of the toxin by the specific antibodies present in the serum. This process prevents the toxin from causing harm to the mice. Summary of other choices: B: Precipitation - This involves the formation of insoluble complexes between antigen and antibody, not the specific neutralization seen in this case. C: Complement binding - This involves activation of the complement system leading to cell lysis, not the direct neutralization of toxin. D: Double immune diffusion - This technique is used to determine the presence of specific antibodies or antigens based on their diffusion patterns, not the neutralization of toxin as seen in this scenario.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Entamoeba histolytica. This is because the presence of cysts with four nuclei is characteristic of Entamoeba histolytica, a protozoan parasite that causes amoebic dysentery. Entamoeba histolytica cysts contain four nuclei, distinguishing them from other pathogens. Giardia lamblia and Trichomonas vaginalis are not associated with cysts containing four nuclei. Balantidium coli is a ciliated protozoan that does not typically form cysts with multiple nuclei. In summary, the unique feature of four nuclei in the cysts points towards Entamoeba histolytica as the most likely causative agent of the diarrhea in this patient.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pyogenes. This bacterium fits all the given characteristics: Gram-positive cocci arranged in chains, catalase-negative, and beta-hemolytic on blood agar. Streptococcus pyogenes is known for causing skin and soft tissue infections. Staphylococcus aureus (B) is catalase-positive and typically forms clusters, not chains. Enterococcus faecalis (C) is catalase-negative but not beta-hemolytic. Micrococcus luteus (D) is catalase-positive and not typically associated with wound infections.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, chemotherapy combined with surgical therapy. Actinomycosis is a bacterial infection that requires a combination of antibiotics to target the bacteria and surgery to remove abscesses or infected tissues. Antibiotics alone may not penetrate abscesses effectively. Waiting for self-clearance can lead to complications. Surgical treatment alone may not eradicate the infection entirely. Therefore, the most effective therapeutic plan is to combine chemotherapy to treat the infection systemically and surgery to remove localized infections.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: For HIV. Pneumocystis pneumonia in a young man with CD4+ cells less than 200/mm3 is highly suggestive of HIV infection. HIV weakens the immune system, leading to opportunistic infections like pneumocystis pneumonia. Testing for HIV is crucial for diagnosis and appropriate management. Explanation for other choices: A: Testing for ureaplasma urealyticum is not indicated in this case as the symptoms and CD4+ cell count point towards an HIV-related infection. C: Testing for Treponema pallidum (syphilis) is not relevant in the context of a young man with pneumocystis pneumonia and low CD4+ cell count. D: Testing for Neisseria gonorrhoea is not appropriate in this scenario as the symptoms and CD4+ cell count suggest an underlying HIV infection rather than a bacterial sexually transmitted infection.