Nursing Process 1 Test Questions

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because monitoring for signs of infection, air embolus, and leakage/puncture are crucial in caring for a patient with a central venous line to prevent serious complications. Infections can lead to sepsis, air embolus can cause respiratory distress, and leakage/puncture can result in hemorrhage or damage to surrounding tissues. A: While a complete blood count and electrolytes may be important for monitoring the patient's overall health, they are not specific to the central venous line care. B: Regular chest x-rays are not necessary unless there are specific indications of line malposition or complications. C: Continuous infusion at a keep-vein-open rate is a standard practice but does not address the critical aspects of central line care mentioned in option D. Therefore, monitoring for signs of infection, air embolus, and leakage/puncture is the most essential component of the plan of care for a patient with a central venous line.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Human papilloma virus (HPV) infection at age 32. HPV is a known risk factor for cervical cancer as it can lead to cellular changes in the cervix. Here's the rationale: 1. HPV is a sexually transmitted infection that can cause abnormal cell growth in the cervix. 2. Persistent HPV infection is a major risk factor for developing cervical cancer. 3. Age 32 is within the typical age range for HPV infection and the development of cervical cancer. 4. Choices A, B, and C are unrelated to the primary risk factor for cervical cancer, which is HPV infection.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step 1: Monitoring Mrs. GC's color, pulse, and respiration is important to assess for any signs of distress during the procedure. Step 2: Labeling all laboratory specimens in numerical order ensures accurate identification and prevents errors in specimen handling. Step 3: Positioning Mrs. GC on her side with knees drawn up to her chest helps maintain proper spinal alignment and reduces the risk of complications. Summary: Option D is correct because all the interventions mentioned are crucial for ensuring patient safety and procedural success. Options A, B, and C are incorrect individually as they each address only one aspect of the procedure, whereas the correct answer encompasses all necessary interventions.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypoglycemia. At 4:30 p.m., after taking the morning insulin, the client's blood sugar may have dropped too low, leading to symptoms like headache, sweating, tremor, pallor, and nervousness. Regular insulin and NPH insulin peak at different times, causing a potential mismatch in insulin action, leading to hypoglycemia. Hyperglycemia (A) would present with different symptoms like increased thirst and urination. Hyperuricemia (B) is an excess of uric acid in the blood and does not typically present with these symptoms. Hypochondria (D) is a psychological condition and not related to the client's physical symptoms.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: A sudden drop in BP may occur during the first 1-3 hours after the initial dose. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors can cause vasodilation, leading to a reduction in blood pressure. In clients with renal or hepatic impairment and in older adults, these medications may not be cleared from the body as efficiently, increasing the risk of hypotension. Monitoring is crucial to prevent complications. Incorrect choices: A: A sudden raise in BP is unlikely with angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors. C: Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors do not affect body temperature. D: Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors typically do not cause a sudden rise in pulse rate. In summary, monitoring for a potential drop in blood pressure is essential in vulnerable populations when using angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors.