test bank foundations of nursing

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Asthma. Atopic dermatitis is associated with a heightened immune response and inflammation, which can predispose individuals to developing asthma. Both conditions involve an overactive immune response and can coexist in patients due to shared genetic and environmental factors. Asthma commonly presents alongside atopic dermatitis in individuals with atopic tendencies. Bronchitis (choice A) is a respiratory condition caused by inflammation of the bronchial tubes and is not directly linked to atopic dermatitis. Systemic lupus erythematosus (choice B) and rheumatoid arthritis (choice C) are autoimmune diseases that primarily affect the joints and other organs, but they are not typically associated with atopic dermatitis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Epistaxis (nose bleed). Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, leading to impaired blood clotting and an increased risk of bleeding. Epistaxis is a common symptom of thrombocytopenia due to the lack of platelets to aid in clot formation. Assessing for epistaxis in patients receiving carmustine is crucial to monitor and manage potential bleeding complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not directly associated with thrombocytopenia.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Erythema of nipple/areola in one breast can be a sign of Paget's disease, a rare form of breast cancer. 2. Paget's disease may also present with itching, tingling, or a burning sensation in the affected area. 3. Referring the patient promptly is crucial for early detection and appropriate management. 4. Peau d'orange (A) is a sign of advanced breast cancer, not typically presenting with erythema alone. 5. Nipple inversion (B) may be benign or related to other conditions, not typically presenting with erythema. 6. Acute mastitis (D) presents with breast pain, warmth, swelling, and fever, but not typically with isolated erythema of the nipple/areola.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the cognitive effects of aging can mimic symptoms of brain tumors in older adults, leading to misdiagnosis or delayed diagnosis. Aging can also affect the presentation, progression, and treatment outcomes of brain tumors. Option B is incorrect as brain tumors in older adults can indeed produce focal effects. Option C is incorrect as not all older adults have numerous benign brain tumors, and this is not a factor affecting the diagnosis and treatment of brain tumors in this case. Option D is incorrect as age alone does not preclude treatment for brain tumors.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because sildenafil works by enhancing the effects of nitric oxide, which is released during sexual stimulation to relax the muscles in the penis and increase blood flow for an erection. Therefore, sexual stimulation is necessary for the medication to be effective. Explanation of other choices: B: While sildenafil is typically taken 30 minutes to 4 hours before sexual activity, it does not need to be exactly 1 hour prior. C: Facial flushing and headache are common side effects of sildenafil but do not require immediate reporting unless severe or persistent. D: Sildenafil may cause temporary visual disturbances like changes in color vision, but permanent visual changes are rare.