test bank foundations of nursing

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Asthma. Atopic dermatitis is associated with a heightened immune response and inflammation, which can predispose individuals to developing asthma. Both conditions involve an overactive immune response and can coexist in patients due to shared genetic and environmental factors. Asthma commonly presents alongside atopic dermatitis in individuals with atopic tendencies. Bronchitis (choice A) is a respiratory condition caused by inflammation of the bronchial tubes and is not directly linked to atopic dermatitis. Systemic lupus erythematosus (choice B) and rheumatoid arthritis (choice C) are autoimmune diseases that primarily affect the joints and other organs, but they are not typically associated with atopic dermatitis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tumor lysis syndrome (TLS). In this scenario, the oncology patient has completed treatment for non-Hodgkin lymphoma. TLS is a potential complication post-treatment due to the rapid breakdown of cancer cells, leading to release of intracellular contents like potassium, phosphorus, and uric acid into the bloodstream. This can result in electrolyte imbalances, renal failure, and cardiac arrhythmias. The nurse should assess for signs such as hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia, and elevated uric acid levels. Monitoring renal function and fluid status is crucial. Summary of other choices: B: Syndrome of inappropriate ADH (SIADH) is characterized by excessive release of antidiuretic hormone leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. Not typically associated with post-treatment complications in oncology patients. C: Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Compensating for vision loss for the next several weeks. This is the priority subject for discharge education because vision loss is a common outcome post vitreoretinal procedure. The patient needs to understand how to adapt to this temporary impairment, such as using assistive devices and modifying their environment. A: Risk factors for postoperative CMV is not the priority as it is not a common concern in this situation. C: Non-pharmacologic pain management is important but not the priority compared to vision loss. D: Signs and symptoms of increased intraocular pressure are important but not as crucial as managing vision loss.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Audiometry. Postoperative audiometry is the most appropriate assessment to determine the success of ossiculoplasty, as it evaluates the patient's hearing function and any improvements made by the surgery. Otoscopy (A) is a visual examination of the ear canal and may not provide comprehensive information on hearing. Balance testing (C) assesses equilibrium and is not directly related to the success of ossiculoplasty. Culture and sensitivity testing (D) of ear discharge is used to identify infections and would not directly indicate the success of the surgery.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because babies can become infected with the herpes virus if delivered vaginally. During childbirth, the virus can be passed to the infant, leading to serious health complications. This information is crucial for the patient to understand in order to make informed decisions about delivery options. Choice B is incorrect because excision of herpes lesions is not the recommended treatment during pregnancy. Treatment typically involves antiviral medications to manage symptoms and reduce the risk of transmission to the baby. Choice C is incorrect because herpes outbreaks can indeed be painful during pregnancy due to hormonal changes and a weakened immune system. Pain management strategies should be discussed as part of the teaching plan. Choice D is incorrect because pregnancy can pose a risk to the infant if the mother has active herpes. It is important to manage the condition appropriately to prevent transmission to the baby.