Midwifery Exam Questions and Answers PDF

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because exchange transfusion aims to control hemolysis by removing the damaged red blood cells and replacing them with healthy ones, thus restoring hemoglobin levels. This procedure does not cure haemolysis or hypoxia entirely, nor does it stabilize the immune system or liver functions. It specifically targets controlling hemolysis and restoring hemoglobin levels to improve the patient's condition.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step 1: Atony of the uterus is the most common cause of primary postpartum hemorrhage due to inadequate uterine contractions. Step 2: Trauma of the genital tract can lead to bleeding but is not as common as atony of the uterus in postpartum hemorrhage. Step 3: Blood coagulation disorder can contribute to excessive bleeding but is not the primary cause of postpartum hemorrhage. Step 4: Prolonged 3rd stage can result in postpartum hemorrhage but is typically secondary to uterine atony.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step 1: The presence of bile in vomitus suggests that the vomit originated from the small intestine or stomach, indicating an obstruction in the pyloric region. Step 2: Pyloric stenosis is a condition characterized by narrowing of the opening from the stomach to the small intestine, leading to projectile vomiting with bile. Step 3: Therefore, the presence of bile in vomitus suggests pyloric stenosis, making option D the correct answer. Summary: Option A is incorrect because vomiting preceding pain does not necessarily indicate a surgical abdomen. Option B is incorrect as the severity of symptoms is not solely based on age. Option C is incorrect as some surgical abdomens can present with vomiting as a primary symptom.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decompression of the colon with rectal tube. This is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with acute colonic pseudo-obstruction (ACPO), also known as Ogilvie's syndrome. In this condition, there is colonic distention without an actual mechanical obstruction, leading to symptoms like abdominal pain, distention, and high-pitched bowel sounds. Decompression with a rectal tube can help relieve the distention and prevent complications like perforation. Choice A (stimulant laxative) is incorrect because ACPO is not due to simple constipation, so laxatives would not be effective. Choice B (carcinoma of the bowel) is unlikely given the acute onset and lack of risk factors. Choice D (angiography for mesenteric ischemia) is not indicated in this case as there are no signs of acute ischemia. In summary, the correct choice is C because it directly addresses the underlying issue of colonic distention in

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Complete uterine rupture involves a full-thickness disruption of all uterine layers, including the serosa, myometrium, and endometrium. This leads to a complete separation of the uterine wall, potentially resulting in severe bleeding and fetal distress. Choice A is incorrect as it only involves the outermost layer of the uterus. Choice C is incorrect as uterine contractions are usually present during uterine rupture. Choice D is incorrect as the correct definition of complete uterine rupture involves the entire uterine layers being affected.