test bank foundations of nursing

Questions 102

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

test bank foundations of nursing Questions

Question 1 of 5

After mastoid surgery, an 81-year-old patient has been identified as needing assistance in her home. What would be a primary focus of this patients home care?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Preparation of nutritious meals and avoidance of contraindicated foods. After mastoid surgery, proper nutrition is crucial for healing and recovery. Nutritious meals support the immune system and aid in tissue repair. Avoiding contraindicated foods, such as those that may cause inflammation or interfere with medications, is essential for the patient's well-being. Choices B, C, and D are not the primary focus of home care after mastoid surgery. While rest, adaptation to hearing loss, and assistance with ambulation are important, they are secondary to ensuring proper nutrition for optimal recovery in this case.

Question 2 of 5

As the triage nurse in the emergency room, you are reviewing results for the high-risk obstetric patient who is in labor because of traumatic injury experienced as a result of a motor vehicle accident (MVA). You note that the Kleihauer�Betke test is positive. Based on this information, you anticipate that

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: immediate birth is required. The Kleihauer�Betke test is used to detect fetal-maternal hemorrhage in situations where there is a risk of fetal blood entering the maternal circulation, such as trauma during pregnancy. A positive result indicates a significant fetal-maternal hemorrhage, which can lead to Rh incompatibility and severe fetal anemia. Immediate birth is required to prevent complications and ensure the safety of both the mother and the baby. Choice B is incorrect as transferring the patient to the critical care unit does not address the underlying issue of fetal-maternal hemorrhage. Choice C is incorrect as RhoGAM is typically administered to prevent Rh sensitization in Rh-negative mothers carrying Rh-positive babies, which is not the primary concern in this scenario. Choice D is incorrect as a tetanus shot is not directly related to the positive Kleihauer�Betke test result indicating fetal-maternal hemorrhage.

Question 3 of 5

A patient with preeclampsia is being treated with bed rest and intravenous magnesium sulfate. The drug classification of this medication is a

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: anticonvulsant. Magnesium sulfate is used in the treatment of preeclampsia to prevent seizures, making it an anticonvulsant. It works by reducing neuromuscular excitability and stabilizing nerve cell membranes. Choice A (diuretic) is incorrect because magnesium sulfate does not primarily promote diuresis. Choice B (tocolytic) is incorrect as it does not inhibit uterine contractions. Choice D (antihypertensive) is incorrect because although magnesium sulfate can help lower blood pressure in preeclampsia, its primary indication in this case is for seizure prophylaxis.

Question 4 of 5

A labor and birth nurse receives a call from the laboratory regarding a preeclamptic patient receiving an IV infusion of magnesium sulfate. The laboratory technician reports that the patient�s magnesium level is 6 mg/dL. What is the nurse�s priority action?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stop the infusion of magnesium. A magnesium level of 6 mg/dL is above the therapeutic range (4-7 mg/dL) for preeclamptic patients receiving magnesium sulfate. Continuing the infusion can lead to magnesium toxicity, causing respiratory depression, cardiac arrest, and neuromuscular blockade. Stopping the infusion is crucial to prevent further complications. Assessing the patient's respiratory rate (B) and deep tendon reflexes (C) are important, but stopping the infusion takes priority to prevent harm. Notifying the health care provider (D) is important but may delay immediate action to address the high magnesium level.

Question 5 of 5

A public health nurse is teaching a health class for the male students at the local high school. The nurse is teaching the boys to perform monthly testicular self-examinations. What point would be appropriate to emphasize?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Testicular cancer is a highly curable type of cancer. This is the most appropriate point to emphasize because early detection through regular self-examinations can lead to early treatment and a high survival rate. Testicular cancer has a very high cure rate, especially when detected and treated early. Emphasizing this point encourages boys to perform monthly self-exams, leading to early detection and better outcomes. Explanation of other choices: B: Testicular cancer is very difficult to diagnose - This is incorrect because testicular cancer is actually one of the more easily detectable cancers through self-examinations. C: Testicular cancer is the number one cause of cancer deaths in males - This is incorrect as testicular cancer is not the leading cause of cancer deaths in males. D: Testicular cancer is more common in older men - This is incorrect as testicular cancer is more common in younger men, typically between the ages of 15 and 44.

Similar Questions

Join Our Community Today!

Join Over 10,000+ nursing students using Nurselytic. Access Comprehensive study Guides curriculum for ATI-RN and 3000+ practice questions to help you pass your ATI-RN exam.

Call to Action Image