Critical Care Nursing Exam Questions

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step 1: The correct answer is D because the situation involves a patient with multiple trauma who is not responding to treatment and has no known family members. This indicates a complex ethical dilemma where the medical team may be unsure about the appropriate course of action. Step 2: In this scenario, an ethics consultation is necessary to help guide decision-making regarding the care of the patient. The lack of available family members complicates decision-making, and the consideration of care as futile adds another layer of complexity. Step 3: An ethics consultation can provide a structured framework for evaluating the situation, considering ethical principles such as beneficence, non-maleficence, autonomy, and justice. It can help the healthcare team navigate the ethical considerations and make a well-informed decision in the best interest of the patient. Summary: Choice A: While conflicts between the primary care provider and family may warrant discussions, the agreement on a treatment plan does not necessarily require an ethics consultation. Choice B: Disagreement

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Renal dysfunction is common in critically ill patients due to various factors like sepsis, hypotension, and nephrotoxic medications. This affects nearly two thirds of patients, making it a significant issue in critical care. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A is wrong because renal dysfunction is not rare in critically ill patients. C is incorrect as renal replacement therapy does not guarantee low mortality rates. D is inaccurate as renal dysfunction can have a significant impact on morbidity, mortality, and quality of life in critically ill patients.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Assess and intervene for causes of agitation. In a critically ill patient, agitation while intubated could indicate underlying issues like pain, delirium, or inadequate sedation. By assessing and addressing the root cause of agitation, the nurse can improve patient comfort and prevent potential harm from restraints. Removing restraints periodically for skin integrity (B) and range of motion (C) is important but should not be the primary focus when agitation is present. Maintaining restraints (A) without addressing the agitation could lead to increased distress and potential complications.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Trying to maintain a level of control over the situation. The family member staying at the bedside constantly and even napping there is likely trying to cope with the stressful situation by maintaining a sense of control and connection to the patient. This behavior can be a way for the family member to feel more involved and helpful during a time of uncertainty and powerlessness. Choices A and B involve negative assumptions about the family member's intentions without evidence. Choice D may be a result of the family member's actions but does not address the underlying motivation for their behavior.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (D - Low cardiac output secondary to increased intrathoracic pressure): 1. PEEP increases intrathoracic pressure, which can impede venous return to the heart. 2. Impaired venous return reduces preload, leading to decreased cardiac output. 3. Decreased cardiac output can result in inadequate tissue perfusion and oxygenation. 4. Therefore, PEEP may cause low cardiac output due to increased intrathoracic pressure. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A. Fluid overload is not directly related to PEEP but more to fluid administration or kidney function. B. High cardiac index is unlikely as PEEP can decrease cardiac output. C. Hypoxemia is not a direct result of PEEP but may occur due to other factors like inadequate ventilation or oxygenation settings.