ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 10th Edition Test Bank Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
After a 3- month trail of dietary therapy, a client with type2 diabetes mellitus still has blood glucose levels above 180 mg/dl. The physician adds glyburide (DiaBeta), 2.5 mg P.O. daily, to the treatment regimen. The nurse should instruct the client to take glyburide:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 30 minutes before breakfast. Glyburide is a sulfonylurea medication that stimulates insulin release from the pancreas, enhancing glucose uptake. Taking it before breakfast ensures peak insulin levels coincide with the postprandial glucose spike, aiding in glucose control throughout the day. Option B is incorrect as taking it after dinner may lead to hypoglycemia during sleep. Option C is incorrect as midmorning is not an optimal time for a sulfonylurea dose. Option D is incorrect as taking it at bedtime may also increase the risk of hypoglycemia overnight.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse has been teaching an adult who has iron deficiency anemia about those foods that she needs to include in her meal plans. Which of the following, if selected, would indicate to the nurse that the client understands the dietary instructions?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Citrus fruits and green leafy vegetables. Citrus fruits and green leafy vegetables are good sources of Vitamin C and iron, which are essential for individuals with iron deficiency anemia. Vitamin C enhances the absorption of iron from plant-based sources, while green leafy vegetables provide iron. Bananas and nuts (choice B) are not significant sources of iron. Coffee and tea (choice C) can inhibit iron absorption. Dairy products (choice D) are not high in iron and can also inhibit iron absorption. Therefore, choosing citrus fruits and green leafy vegetables indicates understanding of the dietary instructions for managing iron deficiency anemia.
Question 3 of 5
A patient has cloudy penile discharge. For which additional symptoms of urethritis should the nurse assess?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Painful and frequent urination. Cloudy penile discharge is a common symptom of urethritis, which is inflammation of the urethra. Painful and frequent urination are classic symptoms of urethritis due to irritation and inflammation of the urinary tract. Throat or rectal infection (choice A) are not typically associated with urethritis. Chancres or vesicles on the genitals (choice B) are more indicative of sexually transmitted infections like syphilis or herpes. Oliguria and flank pain (choice D) are more suggestive of kidney or urinary tract issues rather than urethritis.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the ff vitamins does a client lack if there is a problem with the absorption of calcium?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Vitamin D. Vitamin D is essential for the absorption of calcium in the intestines. Without sufficient vitamin D, the body cannot effectively absorb calcium, leading to potential issues with calcium absorption. Vitamin A (choice A) is not directly involved in calcium absorption. Vitamin B (choice B) and Vitamin C (choice C) also do not play a significant role in calcium absorption. Therefore, the lack of Vitamin D is the most likely cause for problems with calcium absorption.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the ff dietary recommendations should a nurse give to a client taking diuretics?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Include potassium-rich foods. Diuretics can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Including potassium-rich foods helps prevent this deficiency. Choice B is incorrect because fruits and fruit juices are often good sources of potassium. Choice C is incorrect as protein-rich foods do not specifically address potassium needs. Choice D is incorrect as dairy products are also good sources of potassium. Therefore, recommending potassium-rich foods is essential to prevent hypokalemia in clients taking diuretics.
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