ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
After 1 week of continuous mental confusion, an elderly African American client is admitted with a preliminary diagnosis of a neurocognitive disorder due to dementia. Which statement would cause the nurse to question this diagnosis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Question 2 of 5
When discussing the main differences between narcolepsy and obstructive sleep apnea syndrome, what should the nurse highlight?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Narcolepsy is characterized by excessive daytime sleepiness and sudden attacks of sleep, while individuals with narcolepsy often feel refreshed after a brief nap. In contrast, obstructive sleep apnea syndrome is marked by pauses in breathing or shallow breathing during sleep, leading to fragmented sleep and excessive daytime sleepiness. Therefore, the correct answer is that individuals with narcolepsy awaken from a nap feeling rested and replenished, which is a key distinguishing feature from obstructive sleep apnea syndrome.
Question 3 of 5
In a center for women who have been abused, which intervention would the nurse use for a woman whose husband has been abusing her for several years?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Choice C is the most appropriate intervention when working with a woman who has been abused by her husband. It acknowledges the woman's pain, expresses empathy, and offers support, creating a safe space for her to open up and seek help. This response shows understanding and compassion, which are crucial when dealing with individuals experiencing abuse.
Question 4 of 5
During a treatment team meeting, the point is made that a client with schizophrenia has recovered from the acute psychosis but continues to demonstrate apathy, avolition, and blunted affect. The nurse who relates these symptoms to serotonin excess will suggest that the client receive?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the symptoms of apathy, avolition, and blunted affect are indicative of negative symptoms commonly seen in schizophrenia. These symptoms are often associated with dopamine and serotonin imbalances in the brain. Olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic, is known for its efficacy in treating both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia. It acts by blocking serotonin and dopamine receptors, helping to alleviate the symptoms mentioned. Chlorpromazine and Haloperidol are typical antipsychotics that primarily target dopamine receptors, while Phenelzine is an MAOI used to treat depression and anxiety disorders, not schizophrenia. Therefore, the most appropriate choice for this client displaying these symptoms related to serotonin excess would be Olanzapine.
Question 5 of 5
While auditing care plans for clients with eating disorders, the nurse realizes that a nursing diagnosis appropriate for a client with anorexia nervosa as well as for a client with bulimia nervosa is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Chronic low self-esteem is a nursing diagnosis that can be applicable to clients with both anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa. These eating disorders are often associated with distorted body image, feelings of inadequacy, and low self-esteem. Clients with these conditions may engage in harmful behaviors related to their self-image, making chronic low self-esteem a relevant nursing diagnosis for them.
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