Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Study Guide Answers

Questions 164

ATI RN

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Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Study Guide Answers Questions

Question 1 of 5

A woman in active labor demonstrates persistent fetal malpresentation, with the fetus in a transverse lie position. What nursing intervention should be prioritized to address this abnormal labor presentation?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In cases of persistent fetal malpresentation, such as a transverse lie position, a cesarean section is often the safest and most effective intervention to address the abnormal labor presentation. Delivering a baby in a transverse lie position vaginally is associated with high risks, including fetal complications such as umbilical cord prolapse and head entrapment. Therefore, to ensure the safety of both the mother and the baby, a cesarean section is usually the most appropriate and timely intervention to address this situation. It is crucial to prioritize the immediate preparation and facilitation of a cesarean section in cases of persistent fetal malpresentation to prevent potential complications and ensure the best outcome for the mother and the baby.

Question 2 of 5

Which of the following actions is indicated in the management of a patient with an open chest wound (sucking chest wound)?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: An open chest wound, also known as a sucking chest wound, can lead to a collapsed lung and respiratory distress. Immediate management involves sealing the wound to prevent air from entering the pleural space and further compromising the patient's respiratory function. Applying a sterile dressing over the wound helps to prevent contamination and occluding the wound with an airtight covering, such as an occlusive dressing, can effectively reduce the risk of a tension pneumothorax, a serious complication that can arise from a sucking chest wound. These interventions help to stabilize the patient's condition and improve the chances of a successful recovery. Administering supplemental oxygen, though beneficial, would be secondary to the primary management of sealing the chest wound. Providing emotional support is important but addressing the physical emergency takes precedence. Elevating the patient's legs would not be appropriate in managing an open chest wound.

Question 3 of 5

A postpartum client who delivered via cesarean section expresses concerns about abdominal incision care and the prevention of wound complications. What nursing intervention should be prioritized to promote optimal incision healing?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Nursing intervention should prioritize providing education on proper incisional wound care techniques to promote optimal healing of the abdominal incision. This may include instructions on how to clean the incision site, signs and symptoms of infection, and when to seek medical attention. Proper wound care can help prevent complications such as infection and dehiscence, leading to better outcomes for the client. Administering prophylactic antibiotics, encouraging the use of abdominal binders, and instructing the client on activity restrictions are also important interventions, but educating the client on wound care techniques is crucial for their active participation in their recovery process.

Question 4 of 5

Verbal communication is the use of words when talking to your patient. The use of literal words when you speak is the :

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Verbal communication involves the use of words and language to convey information. The content refers to the actual words and messages being communicated. In verbal communication with your patient, the content of what you say is key to ensuring effective communication that is clear, accurate, and easily understood. Therefore, the use of literal words when speaking to your patient embodies the content of your communication.

Question 5 of 5

A patient with asthma experiences nocturnal cough, wheezing, and chest tightness several times per week. Which of the following medications is most appropriate for long-term control of asthma symptoms and prevention of exacerbations?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Fluticasone/salmeterol (Advair) is a combination medication consisting of an inhaled corticosteroid (fluticasone) and a long-acting beta-agonist (salmeterol). This combination medication is recommended for long-term control of asthma symptoms and for the prevention of exacerbations. Fluticasone reduces airway inflammation, while salmeterol helps to relax the muscles of the airways, improving breathing. Using this combination medication regularly can help manage asthma symptoms and reduce the risk of asthma attacks. It is not appropriate to use short-acting beta-agonists like albuterol (salbutamol) on a long-term basis for asthma control. Ipratropium bromide (Atrovent) is an anticholinergic bronchodilator that is more commonly used for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD

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