ATI RN
Microbiology Chapter 10 Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A puncture sample has been taken from the inguinal lymph nodes of a patient provisionally diagnosed with plague. The sample was inoculated into a hard nutrient medium. What shape will the colonies have, if the diagnosis is confirmed?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Shagreen leather. Yersinia pestis, the bacterium causing plague, forms colonies resembling shagreen leather on a hard nutrient medium due to its distinctive morphology. This morphology includes a rough, irregular, and raised appearance, similar to the texture of shagreen leather. A: Dewdrops - Incorrect. Dewdrops do not accurately describe the colony morphology of Yersinia pestis. C: Lace handkerchief - Incorrect. Lace handkerchief does not accurately describe the colony morphology of Yersinia pestis. D: Mercury drops - Incorrect. Mercury drops do not accurately describe the colony morphology of Yersinia pestis.
Question 2 of 5
The major morphological form of the bacteria are:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it accurately describes the major morphological forms of bacteria. Cocci are spherical, rod-shaped bacteria are called bacilli, and curved bacteria are spirilla. Staphylococci, streptococci, and diplococci are specific types of cocci, not major morphological forms. Basicili and spiralis are not common morphological forms of bacteria. Option D is incorrect as the other choices do represent major morphological forms of bacteria.
Question 3 of 5
A patient presented with fever, malaise, and an ulcerated lesion. A Gram stain of the lesion revealed large, Gram-positive rods. What is the likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bacillus anthracis. Bacillus anthracis is the likely causative agent as it is a Gram-positive rod-shaped bacterium known to cause ulcerated lesions with associated fever and malaise. Anthrax typically presents with these symptoms and fits the description given in the question. Clostridium perfringens (Choice B) causes gas gangrene and typically presents with different symptoms. Clostridium tetani (Choice C) causes tetanus and is not associated with ulcerated lesions. Bacillus cereus (Choice D) is known for causing food poisoning and does not typically present with the symptoms described in the question.
Question 4 of 5
Best drug to treat candida infections:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nystatin. Nystatin is an antifungal medication specifically used to treat candida infections. It works by disrupting the cell membrane of the fungus, leading to its death. Penicillin (B) is an antibiotic effective against bacterial infections, not fungal. Streptomycin (C) is also an antibiotic used for bacterial infections. Isoniazid (D) is used to treat tuberculosis, not candida infections. Therefore, Nystatin is the best choice for treating candida infections due to its antifungal properties.
Question 5 of 5
The anticodons are located in
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: tRNA. Anticodons are sequences of nucleotides found on tRNA molecules that complement the codons on mRNA during translation. tRNA molecules carry specific amino acids to the ribosome based on the codon-anticodon pairing. Option B, rRNA, forms the structure of the ribosome and is not directly involved in anticodon recognition. Option C, mRNA, contains codons but not anticodons. Option D, ribosomes, are the site of protein synthesis but do not contain the anticodons themselves.
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