ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Cardiac Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient with terminal cancer reports a sudden onset of severe pain. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assess the patient�s pain using a standardized pain scale. The first step is to assess the severity and nature of the pain to determine the appropriate intervention. This allows the nurse to understand the pain intensity and characteristics, which guides the choice of analgesic and dosing. Administering analgesics (B) without proper assessment can lead to inappropriate treatment. Notifying the healthcare provider (C) is important but assessing the pain should come first. Repositioning the patient (D) may provide comfort but addressing the pain directly is the priority.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse cares for a terminally ill patient who is experiencing pain that is continuous and severe. How should the nurse schedule the administration of opioid pain medications?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Give around-the-clock routine administration of analgesics. This is the best approach for managing continuous and severe pain in a terminally ill patient. By providing scheduled doses of opioid pain medications, the nurse ensures a consistent level of pain relief, preventing peaks and troughs in pain control. This approach also helps in preventing the patient from experiencing unnecessary suffering. Choice B (PRN doses) may lead to inadequate pain control as the patient may wait too long before requesting medication. Choice C (keeping the patient sedated) is not appropriate as the goal is pain management, not sedation. Choice D (balancing pain control and respiratory rate) is important, but the priority should be on effectively managing the pain first.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is caring for a patient with acute respiratory dist ress syndrome who is hypoxemic despite mechanical ventilation. The primary care provider (PCP) orders a nontraditional ventilator mode as part of treatment. Despite sedation and aabnirba.lcgoems/tieas,t the patient remains restless and appears to be in discomfort. The nurse informs the PCP of this assessment and anticipates what order?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Neuromuscular blockade. 1. Neuromuscular blockade helps to achieve optimal ventilator synchrony by reducing patient-ventilator asynchrony and improving oxygenation in patients with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). 2. Despite sedation, the patient's restlessness and discomfort suggest inadequate ventilator synchrony, which can be addressed by neuromuscular blockade. 3. Continuous lateral rotation therapy (A) and prone positioning (D) are interventions for improving ventilation and oxygenation in ARDS but do not directly address patient-ventilator synchrony. 4. Guided imagery (B) is a non-pharmacological technique for relaxation and pain management, which may not address the underlying issue of ventilator synchrony in this case.
Question 4 of 5
The patient is admitted to the unit with the diagnosis of rhabdomyolysis. The patient is started on intravenous (IV) fluids and IV mannitol. What action by the nurse is best?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess the patient�s lungs. Rhabdomyolysis can lead to acute kidney injury due to myoglobin release from damaged muscle cells. IV fluids and mannitol are given to prevent kidney damage by promoting myoglobin excretion. Assessing the patient�s lungs is crucial to monitor for potential complications such as acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) which can occur as a result of rhabdomyolysis. This assessment helps to ensure early detection and prompt intervention if respiratory issues arise. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Assess the patient�s hearing - This is not directly related to rhabdomyolysis or its treatment. C: Decrease IV fluids once the diuretic has been administered - Decreasing IV fluids can exacerbate kidney injury in rhabdomyolysis. D: Give extra doses before giving radiological contrast agents - Mannitol is not routinely given before radiological contrast agents in the context of rhabdomyolysis management.
Question 5 of 5
assessment, the patient is restless, heart rate has increased to 110 beats/min, respirat ions are 36 breaths/min, and blood pressure is 156/98 mm Hg. The cardiac monitor shows sin us tachycardia with 10 premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) per minute. Pulmonary artery pressures are elevated. The nurse suctions the patient and obtains pink, frothy secretio ns. Loud crackles are audible throughout lung fields. The nurse notifies the physician, who orders an ABG analysis, electrolyte levels, and a portable chest x-ray study. In comambirubn.ciocma/tteinstg with the physician, which statement indicates the nurse understands what is likely occurring with the patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: �My assessment indicates potential fluid overload.� The patient is showing signs of fluid overload, such as increased heart rate, respiratory rate, elevated blood pressure, pulmonary artery pressures, frothy secretions, and crackles in lung fields. These symptoms suggest fluid is accumulating in the lungs, causing pulmonary congestion. This can lead to impaired gas exchange and respiratory distress. The nurse's recognition of these signs is crucial for prompt intervention to prevent further complications. Other choices are incorrect because there are no indications of a myocardial infarction, PVCs compromising cardiac output, or a hypertensive crisis based on the given information.
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