microbiology a systems approach test bank

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Salmonella enterica. This is because Salmonella are Gram-negative rods that do not ferment lactose, which fits the description in the question. Additionally, Salmonella is a common cause of severe abdominal pain and diarrhea. Shigella dysenteriae is a Gram-negative rod that also causes severe diarrhea but it does not share the characteristic of not fermenting lactose. Escherichia coli is a Gram-negative rod that does ferment lactose. Proteus vulgaris is also a Gram-negative rod but it is not commonly associated with severe abdominal pain and diarrhea, making it an unlikely causative agent in this scenario.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because all three choices, Clostridium botulinum, Morbillivirus morbillorum, and Clostridium tetani, can cause infections of the CNS. Clostridium botulinum can lead to botulism, affecting the nervous system. Morbillivirus morbillorum can cause measles, which can lead to encephalitis. Clostridium tetani can cause tetanus, affecting the central nervous system. Therefore, all three choices can cause infections of the CNS. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect individually because each pathogen can cause CNS infections.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Amebiasis. Amebiasis is caused by the parasite Entamoeba histolytica, presenting with symptoms like acute abdominal pain, bloody diarrhea with mucus, and inconstant shape organisms seen in fecal smear. The presence of erythrocytes supports the diagnosis due to the parasite's ability to invade intestinal mucosa causing bleeding. Choice B (Lambliasis) presents with different symptoms like steatorrhea and fatigue. Choice C (Schistosomiasis) is mainly associated with liver and urinary symptoms. Choice D (Intestinal trichomoniasis) commonly presents with watery diarrhea and does not typically cause bloody stools. Therefore, based on the patient's symptoms and fecal smear findings, Amebiasis is the most likely diagnosis.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Sporotrichosis. Sporotrichosis is caused by the fungus Sporothrix schenckii, which commonly presents as a subcutaneous infection. In the given case, the presence of a small abscess with yellowish-green pus containing white granules is indicative of sporotrichosis. The histological examination showing drusen of a fungus, plasmatic and xanthome cells, and macrophages further supports the diagnosis of sporotrichosis. Choice A: Actinomycosis is a bacterial infection caused by Actinomyces species, not a fungal infection. Choice B: Aspergillosis is caused by Aspergillus species and typically presents as a pulmonary infection, not a subcutaneous abscess as described in the case. Choice C: Candidosis is caused by Candida species and usually presents as mucocutaneous infections, not a subcutaneous abscess with the

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: psychrophiles. Psychrophiles are bacteria that can grow at low temperatures, typically below 20�C. This is because they have adapted to survive and thrive in cold environments. Mesophiles (A) grow best at moderate temperatures, thermophiles (B) thrive in high temperatures, and halophiles (D) prefer high salt concentrations. Psychrophiles are specifically adapted to cold temperatures, making them the correct choice in this scenario.