mcgraw hill microbiology test bank

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neisseria meningitidis. This is because Neisseria meningitidis is a Gram-negative diplococcus that is oxidase-positive and fermentative. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is also a Gram-negative diplococcus, but it is not fermentative. Moraxella catarrhalis is oxidase-positive but not fermentative. Haemophilus influenzae is Gram-negative but is not a diplococcus, and it is not fermentative. Therefore, based on the characteristics provided in the question, Neisseria meningitidis is the most likely causative agent.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because in the lytic cycle, the bacteriophage destroys the host cell upon release, whereas in the lysogenic cycle, the phage integrates its DNA into the host genome without killing the host immediately. This integration may lead to the destruction of the host cell at a later stage. Choice B is incorrect as lytic phages do destroy the host cell. Choice C is incorrect as the two cycles have distinct mechanisms. Choice D is incorrect as there are clear differences between the lytic and lysogenic cycles.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Acid-fast bacteria have a unique cell wall component called mycolic acid, making them resistant to decolorization by acid-alcohol during staining. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is acid-fast, as it retains the stain due to its high lipid content. Streptococcus pyogenes (A), Clostridium perfringens (C), and Bacillus subtilis (D) do not possess mycolic acid in their cell walls, so they are not acid-fast.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Macrolides or fluoroquinolones. Legionella pneumophila is a bacterium that causes Legionnaires' disease, a severe form of pneumonia. Macrolides (like azithromycin) and fluoroquinolones (like levofloxacin) are the recommended first-line treatments due to their ability to penetrate into lung tissues where Legionella infects. Penicillins and cephalosporins (choice A) are not effective against Legionella as it is intracellular and resistant to these antibiotics. Ethambutol and isoniazid (choice B) are used to treat tuberculosis, not Legionella infections. Second and third generation cephalosporins (choice D) are also not effective against Legionella. Therefore, the best choice for treating Legionella pneumophila infections is macrolides or fluoroquinolones.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bacillus anthracis. The black, painless carbuncle with peripheral vesicular rash is characteristic of cutaneous anthrax. Microscopy showing non-motile Gram-positive rods with a capsule aligns with Bacillus anthracis. The other choices can be eliminated: B: Staphylococcus aureus does not typically form a black lesion or have a capsule. C: Clostridium perfringens causes gas gangrene, not the described lesion. D: Bacillus subtilis is not associated with the specific clinical presentation mentioned.