clinical skills exam questions

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step 1: Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) leads to excess water retention, diluting sodium levels in the blood. Step 2: Fluid restriction is the mainstay of treatment to prevent further dilution of sodium. Step 3: Administering 3% normal saline (choice A) can worsen the condition by further increasing sodium levels. Step 4: Exogenous vasopressin (choice B) would exacerbate the problem by increasing water retention. Step 5: Low sodium diet (choice D) may be beneficial in the long term but is not the immediate priority.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: A patient with head trauma may develop diabetes insipidus due to damage to the hypothalamus or pituitary gland, leading to decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). This results in excessive urine output and thirst. Other options are incorrect because: B: Diabetic ketoacidosis is associated with high blood sugar and ketones, not increased urine output. C: Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome is characterized by extreme hyperglycemia, not increased urine output. D: Syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone results in decreased urine output due to excess ADH.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Volume replacement and insulin infusion often correct the acidosis in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) because volume depletion and insulin deficiency are key factors in its pathophysiology. Volume replacement helps correct dehydration and improve tissue perfusion, while insulin infusion helps lower blood glucose levels and inhibit ketone production, ultimately correcting the acidosis. A is incorrect because serum lactate levels are not typically used to guide insulin administration in DKA. B is incorrect as sodium bicarbonate is not a first-line medication for DKA treatment as it can worsen metabolic acidosis. C is incorrect as the degree of acidosis in DKA is typically assessed through blood gas analysis, not continuous pulse oximetry.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: a decreased risk of peritonitis exists. Peritoneal dialysis involves using the peritoneum as a membrane for fluid exchange, reducing the risk of infections like peritonitis compared to hemodialysis. Option A is incorrect as peritoneal dialysis can be done at home and is less time-consuming than hemodialysis. Option C is incorrect as biochemical disturbances are corrected more gradually with peritoneal dialysis. Option D is incorrect as there is a risk of bleeding complications with peritoneal dialysis.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because continuous venovenous hemodiafiltration (CVVHDF) combines ultrafiltration, convection, and dialysis to maximize fluid and solute removal. Ultrafiltration removes plasma water, convection removes fluids and solutes, and dialysis facilitates solute removal through diffusion. Choice A is incorrect because convection alone does not remove solutes, but CVVHDF combines convection with other methods. Choice B is incorrect because CVVHDF is not specifically used for volume overload, although it does remove fluids. Choice C is incorrect because CVVHDF does not involve adding dialysate to remove solutes; instead, it relies on diffusion for solute removal. In summary, the correct answer D is the best choice as it encompasses all the components needed for comprehensive fluid and solute removal in CVVHDF.