jarvis physical examination and health assessment test bank

Questions 81

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

jarvis physical examination and health assessment test bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

A patient with alcoholism is brought in with confusion. You ask him to "stop traffic" with his palms and notice that every few seconds his palms suddenly move toward the floor. What does this indicate?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Metabolic problems. The patient's inability to maintain sustained upward hand posture indicates asterixis, a sign of metabolic encephalopathy commonly seen in patients with liver failure due to alcoholism. This is caused by metabolic disturbances affecting the brain's function, leading to confusion and motor abnormalities. It is not indicative of a stroke (A), carpal tunnel syndrome (C), or severe fatigue and weakness (D), as they do not typically present with asterixis or the described palm movements.

Question 2 of 5

When deciding on an initial treatment option for an acute flare of atopic dermatitis, unresponsive to emollient therapy, the next best choice for treatment is:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Betamethasone dipropionate 0.05% (Betanate). When managing an acute flare of atopic dermatitis unresponsive to emollient therapy, topical corticosteroids like betamethasone are often the first-line treatment due to their anti-inflammatory properties. Betamethasone is a potent corticosteroid that can help reduce inflammation, itching, and redness associated with atopic dermatitis. Oral corticosteroids (Choice A) are generally reserved for severe cases due to potential systemic side effects. Desonide (Choice C) is a milder topical corticosteroid suitable for maintenance therapy but may not be potent enough for acute flares. Pimecrolimus (Choice D) is a calcineurin inhibitor used for moderate to severe atopic dermatitis and is generally not the first choice for initial treatment of acute flares.

Question 3 of 5

An 85-year-old man with newly diagnosed nonvalvular atrial fibrillation comes to the office for a follow-up. Which medication change would be most appropriate for reducing his stroke risk?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Stop aspirin and begin apixaban 5 mg twice a day. The rationale is that for stroke risk reduction in nonvalvular atrial fibrillation, anticoagulation therapy with direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) like apixaban is preferred over antiplatelet therapy like aspirin. DOACs have been shown to be more effective in reducing stroke risk with a lower bleeding risk compared to warfarin. Choice A is incorrect as aspirin alone is not sufficient for stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation. Choice B is incorrect as warfarin has more monitoring requirements and potential drug interactions compared to DOACs like apixaban. Choice D is incorrect as aspirin and apixaban together are not recommended due to increased bleeding risk.

Question 4 of 5

Acute lymphocytic leukemia is usually diagnosed by:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: A bone marrow examination. Acute lymphocytic leukemia is a type of blood cancer that affects the bone marrow's ability to produce normal blood cells. A bone marrow examination is necessary to confirm the diagnosis by analyzing the bone marrow cells for abnormality. A complete blood count (choice A) can show abnormalities in blood cell counts but cannot confirm leukemia. Magnetic resonance imaging (choice B) and nuclear bone scan (choice C) are imaging tests that can show bone abnormalities but are not specific for diagnosing leukemia.

Question 5 of 5

A 78-year-old man with multi-infarct dementia, chronic kidney disease, congestive heart failure, and uncontrolled hypertension develops confusion, restlessness, and combativeness. Which of the pharmacologic agents would be the best choice for treating the agitation associated with his delirium?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Haloperidol. Haloperidol is a first-line antipsychotic commonly used to manage agitation in delirium due to its rapid onset and minimal sedative effects. It acts by blocking dopamine receptors in the brain, which helps to reduce agitation and combativeness. Melatonin (A) is not effective for acute agitation. Diazepam (C) can worsen confusion in elderly patients and is not recommended for delirium. Gabapentin (D) is not indicated for managing agitation in delirium and may not be effective in this scenario.

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