openstax microbiology test bank

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus aureus. Staphylococcus aureus is a Gram-positive cocci that is catalase-positive and coagulase-positive, making it the most likely causative agent for the wound infection. Catalase-positive bacteria produce the enzyme catalase, which helps break down hydrogen peroxide. Coagulase-positive bacteria produce the enzyme coagulase, which causes the plasma proteins to clot. Staphylococcus epidermidis is catalase-positive but coagulase-negative, making it less likely to cause a wound infection. Streptococcus pyogenes is catalase-negative, and Enterococcus faecalis is catalase-negative and coagulase-negative, so they are less likely to be the causative agent.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Interferon is a cell-specific protein that is produced and released from infected cells in response to viral infections. It acts extracellularly to interfere with viral replication, not to inactivate the virus itself. Interferon is not coded for by cellular DNA, but by viral RNA during infection. Therefore, the correct answer, D, is that interferon is not virus-specific but is cell-specific. This is because interferon can be produced by various cell types in response to different types of viral infections, making it a broad-spectrum antiviral defense mechanism.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Sepsis is a systemic response to infection resulting in organ dysfunction. A: Sepsis can be caused by bacterial infection, but it is not solely defined by the presence of bacteria in the blood. B: Bacteremia is the presence of bacteria in the blood, which can be a component of sepsis, but sepsis involves a broader systemic response beyond just bacteremia. C: Sepsis can lead to the release of toxins and organ failure, but sepsis itself is not defined solely by the massive proliferation of toxins. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as sepsis can involve the presence of bacteria, bacteremia, systemic manifestations, and organ failure.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: ELISA, Western blot. These tests are commonly used for diagnosing Lyme borreliosis due to their high sensitivity and specificity in detecting antibodies against Borrelia burgdorferi, the causative agent. ELISA is the initial screening test, while Western blot is used for confirmation. Widal agglutination test (A) is used for diagnosing typhoid fever, not Lyme disease. Cultivation on blood and chocolate agar (B) is not commonly used for diagnosing Lyme borreliosis as Borrelia species are difficult to culture. Ascoli thermoprecipitation test (D) is used for diagnosing pneumonia caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae, not Lyme disease.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because lipophilization is the process of removing water from cells under deep vacuum in a frozen state. Dehydration of the cell at a low temperature helps to preserve the cellular structure and components. Choice B is incorrect as hydration does the opposite of what lipophilization aims to achieve. Choice C is incorrect as lipophilization does not involve enriching cells with proteins. Choice D is incorrect as lipophilization does not involve removing protein content from cells.