ATI RN
microbiology chapter 11 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient with a severe sore throat had a throat smear revealing Gram-positive cocci in pairs with a capsule. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pneumoniae. The presence of Gram-positive cocci in pairs with a capsule is characteristic of Streptococcus pneumoniae. This bacterium is a common cause of bacterial pharyngitis, leading to a severe sore throat. Staphylococcus aureus (B) does not typically present in pairs or have a capsule. Neisseria meningitidis (C) is a Gram-negative diplococcus, not a Gram-positive cocci. Klebsiella pneumoniae (D) is a Gram-negative bacillus, not a cocci. Thus, based on the characteristics described in the question, Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most likely causative agent.
Question 2 of 5
The presence of specific antibodies in the reaction inhibition of hemagglutination is visualized by the;
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Absence of hemagglutination. In the reaction inhibition of hemagglutination, specific antibodies bind to antigens on red blood cells, preventing their agglutination. This results in the absence of visible clumping of red blood cells, which is known as hemagglutination. Therefore, the presence of specific antibodies is visualized by the absence of hemagglutination. Incorrect Choices: A: Absence of hemolysis - Hemolysis refers to the rupture of red blood cells, which is not relevant in the context of hemagglutination. C: Presence of hemagglutination - This is the opposite of what is expected when specific antibodies are present and inhibiting hemagglutination. D: Presence of hemolysis - Again, hemolysis is not directly related to the inhibition of hemagglutination by specific antibodies.
Question 3 of 5
The one-way transfer of genetic material from a donor cell to a recipient cell by direct cell-to-cell contact is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Conjugation involves direct cell-to-cell contact for the transfer of genetic material, typically through a pilus. This process is well-documented in bacterial genetics. Transformation (A) involves uptake of free DNA from the environment. Transduction (B) is genetic transfer by a viral vector. Replication (C) is the process of producing identical copies of DNA or RNA. Therefore, the correct answer is D (conjugation) as it specifically refers to the one-way transfer of genetic material through direct cell-to-cell contact.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following sites of the human body does not have a normal flora?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Blood. Normal flora refers to the microorganisms that naturally inhabit specific areas of the body. Blood is considered a sterile environment in healthy individuals, meaning it does not harbor any microorganisms under normal circumstances. In contrast, the intestine, skin, and vagina all have normal flora as they provide suitable environments for various microbial species to thrive. The presence of normal flora in these sites helps maintain a balance and protect against pathogenic invaders. Blood, being a vital and sterile fluid, is not meant to have any resident microbial populations.
Question 5 of 5
A 6-year-old child with suspected active tuberculosis process has undergone diagnostic Mantoux test. What immunobiological preparation was injected?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tuberculin. The Mantoux test involves injecting tuberculin, a protein derivative of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, under the skin to check for a delayed hypersensitivity reaction in individuals exposed to TB. B: BCG vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine used for TB prevention, not for diagnostic testing. C: DTP vaccine is for diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis, not TB. D: Tularinum is not a standard immunobiological preparation used for TB testing. Therefore, A is the correct choice for the Mantoux test.
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