ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient with a history of stroke is prescribed clopidogrel (Plavix) for secondary prevention of thrombotic events. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor closely during clopidogrel therapy?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Platelet count. Platelet count should be monitored closely during clopidogrel therapy because it works by inhibiting platelet aggregation, reducing the risk of clot formation. Monitoring platelet count helps assess the drug's effectiveness and prevent potential complications like bleeding or clotting events. Prothrombin time (A), activated partial thromboplastin time (B), and international normalized ratio (D) are tests that primarily assess the coagulation factors and are not directly affected by clopidogrel therapy, making them less relevant for monitoring this specific medication.
Question 2 of 5
Latex allergy can be a type I IgE-mediated immediate hypersensitivity to plant proteins from the latex of rubber. It can manifest in its MOST severe form as _____.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Anaphylaxis. Anaphylaxis is the MOST severe form of an allergic reaction, including latex allergy. It is a systemic, potentially life-threatening reaction that can involve multiple organ systems. Symptoms can include difficulty breathing, swelling of the throat, a rapid drop in blood pressure, and cardiovascular collapse. Pruritus, erythema, and swelling (choice A) are common symptoms of allergic reactions but not specific to anaphylaxis. Asthma (choice B) can be a manifestation of latex allergy but is not the most severe form. Blisters and other skin lesions (choice D) are not typical of anaphylaxis but can occur in some cases of contact dermatitis from latex exposure.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following clinical manifestations is most indicative of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: - ARDS is characterized by severe hypoxemia and respiratory distress. - Tachypnea is a hallmark sign of ARDS due to the body's compensatory mechanism to increase oxygenation. - Hypoxemia refractory to supplemental oxygen signifies the inability to improve oxygen levels despite intervention. - Choices A, B, and D do not align with typical manifestations of ARDS, as they do not directly reflect severe hypoxemia or respiratory distress.
Question 4 of 5
The patient asks Nurse Vera, when could you hear the fetal heart of my baby? Which of the following should be the BEST answer of Nurse Vera?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fifth month. Nurse Vera should explain that the fetal heart can typically be heard using a Doppler ultrasound device around the fifth month of pregnancy. This is because the baby's heart is developed enough to produce audible sounds by this time. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in the ninth month, the baby is ready for delivery, in the third month the heart is still developing, and in the first month the heart is just beginning to form and is not yet audible.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following situation is an example of incongruent message?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Incongruent message occurs when verbal and nonverbal communication do not align. Step 2: Choice C states "When what the nurse says and does do not agree," indicating a lack of alignment. Step 3: This inconsistency can lead to confusion or mistrust in communication. Step 4: Choices A, B, and D all describe situations with alignment between words and actions, making them congruent. Summary: Choice C is correct as it exemplifies incongruent communication, while Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they describe congruent messages.
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