Adult Health Nursing Test Bank

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administering proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) concomitantly. Aspirin and clopidogrel can increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. PPIs help reduce this risk by decreasing gastric acid production. Therefore, administering PPIs with dual antiplatelet therapy is essential for preventing bleeding complications. Encouraging increased fluid intake (B) may not directly address the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of thrombocytopenia (C) is important but may not directly prevent bleeding in this case. Providing education on fall prevention measures (D) is important for overall safety but does not directly address bleeding risks associated with dual antiplatelet therapy.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hyponatremia. SSRI medications can lead to the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH), causing hyponatremia. This occurs due to increased levels of serotonin affecting the hypothalamus, leading to excessive ADH release. Hyponatremia can result in neurological symptoms and must be closely monitored. A: Bradycardia is not a common adverse effect of SSRIs. B: Hyperkalemia is not typically associated with SSRIs. D: Hypertension is not a common adverse effect of SSRIs; they may actually lower blood pressure.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Nurse Merry should tell the recruiter to give her more time to settle her personal affairs before departing to Canada. This is the best action because it shows responsibility and consideration for her current commitments and family situation. By requesting more time, she can prioritize her mother's recovery and complete her graduate studies, demonstrating good decision-making skills and care for her loved ones. Option A is incorrect because it dismisses the importance of family and personal obligations. Option B is incorrect as it shows a lack of planning and responsibility. Option D is incorrect as it suggests running away from problems instead of addressing them responsibly.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rotator cuff tear. The presentation of acute shoulder pain and limited range of motion after a fall onto an outstretched hand, along with tenderness over the greater tuberosity and pain with passive abduction and external rotation, is classic for a rotator cuff tear. The mechanism of injury and physical exam findings are consistent with this condition. B: Glenohumeral dislocation typically presents with a visibly deformed shoulder and loss of normal shoulder contour. C: Acromioclavicular joint separation would present with tenderness over the AC joint rather than the greater tuberosity, and typically involves a history of direct trauma to the shoulder. D: Proximal humerus fracture would present with more diffuse shoulder pain and swelling, and not specific tenderness over the greater tuberosity.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: - ARDS is characterized by severe hypoxemia and respiratory distress. - Tachypnea is a hallmark sign of ARDS due to the body's compensatory mechanism to increase oxygenation. - Hypoxemia refractory to supplemental oxygen signifies the inability to improve oxygen levels despite intervention. - Choices A, B, and D do not align with typical manifestations of ARDS, as they do not directly reflect severe hypoxemia or respiratory distress.