Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Study Guide Answers

Questions 164

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Study Guide Answers Questions

Question 1 of 5

A patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed tiotropium (Spiriva) inhaler. Which instruction should the nurse include in patient education about tiotropium inhaler use?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Tiotropium (Spiriva) is an anticholinergic bronchodilator used for the management of COPD. A common side effect of anticholinergic medications is dry mouth. Rinsing the mouth with water after using the inhaler can help reduce the risk of developing oral thrush or other mouth infections due to dryness. This instruction helps promote good oral hygiene and decreases the potential side effects associated with tiotropium inhaler use. This teaching is important for patients to follow to ensure their overall health and well-being while using the medication.

Question 2 of 5

A patient with terminal cancer experiences dyspnea and anxiety. Which intervention should the palliative nurse prioritize to address the patient's symptoms?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: When a patient with terminal cancer experiences dyspnea (difficulty breathing) and anxiety, opioid medications are often prioritized by palliative care providers for symptom management. Opioids are effective in relieving dyspnea by acting as respiratory depressants and reducing the feeling of air hunger. Additionally, opioids have sedative effects that can help alleviate anxiety and promote relaxation. Therefore, in this situation, prescribing opioid medications would be the most appropriate intervention to address both the dyspnea and anxiety symptoms simultaneously. Oxygen therapy, relaxation techniques, and breathing exercises may also be useful adjunctive interventions, but opioid medications are typically prioritized for immediate symptom relief in this context.

Question 3 of 5

A patient is prescribed an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor for heart failure. Which laboratory parameter should the nurse monitor closely during ACE inhibitor therapy?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should monitor serum potassium levels closely during ACE inhibitor therapy because ACE inhibitors can lead to an increase in serum potassium levels, known as hyperkalemia. ACE inhibitors block the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, which in turn decreases aldosterone secretion. Aldosterone normally acts in the kidneys to reabsorb sodium and water and excrete potassium. Therefore, when aldosterone secretion is decreased due to ACE inhibitor therapy, there can be an increase in potassium retention, potentially leading to hyperkalemia. Monitoring serum potassium levels is essential to prevent complications associated with hyperkalemia, such as cardiac arrhythmias.

Question 4 of 5

A patient expresses frustration with the long wait times in the healthcare facility. What is the nurse's best response?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The nurse's best response in this situation is to listen actively to the patient's concerns, acknowledge the inconvenience they are experiencing, and offer support. It is essential to validate the patient's feelings and show empathy towards their frustration. By actively listening and addressing the patient's concerns, the nurse can help alleviate some of their frustration and build a positive rapport with the patient. This approach demonstrates respect for the patient's feelings and promotes effective communication in the healthcare setting. Dismissing or ignoring the patient's frustration can lead to further dissatisfaction and impact the quality of care provided.

Question 5 of 5

Nurse Nora monitors the patient, knowing that which finding indicates an adequate contraction pattern?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: An adequate contraction pattern during labor is characterized by regular contractions occurring at a frequency of three to 5 contractions in a 10-minute period, with resultant cervical dilatation. This pattern indicates efficient uterine activity that is helping to progress labor by dilating the cervix. In option A, the contractions are occurring at an appropriate frequency and are resulting in cervical dilatation, making it the correct choice for indicating an adequate contraction pattern.

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